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Post 0

Monday, March 22, 2004 - 3:53amSanction this postReply
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Good article, Lindsay. It sure is *the* duel on which the human world turns.

As you say Plato won. I've often wondered why, and one thing that strikes me is that, unlike Aristotle, he wrote stories. He's a better read :) His duelling black & white stallions, his man in the cave, his cosmic crystalline delicacies - they draw in & capture the imagination. They enact this thought. Reading Aristotle is more like studying differential equations. And whose got time for that? :)

So the second Aristotle did the right thing. She told great stories. And her thought - instilled with her person - is lived out in every chapter.

The future then, looks promising. The marketing's been got right. :)




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Monday, March 22, 2004 - 7:47amSanction this postReply
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Good Article Linz.
Wouldn't the title capture the true essence better as "Kant Cunt"? I am sure he wouldn't mind you taking liberties with "das Ding an sich" :-)




Post 2

Monday, March 22, 2004 - 8:52amSanction this postReply
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I thank Lindsay Perigo for his bold, clear presentation of what Kant is all about.  In the last TOC Advanced Seminar, I critiqued Fred Seddon's attempt to invalidate Rand's criticism of Kant in his paper "Kant on Faith." My critique and Seddon's paper are posted on the TOC website at:

http://www.objectivistcenter.com/events/advsem03/seminars-advpart.asp

It's good to know there are others who see Kant's ideas for what they.

Regards,

Michelle Fram Cohen





Post 3

Monday, March 22, 2004 - 4:48pmSanction this postReply
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Linz, did Kant posit how he was able to determine that a noumenal world existed when he himself would have been denied such knowledge as a poor creature of the phenomenal world? Or is this a blank-out for followers of Kant?

I liked the article. More, please.




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Thursday, March 25, 2004 - 12:18pmSanction this postReply
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Thank you for your comments, lady & gents. How did Kant know we can't know, if we can't know? Irresistible inference, inbuilt knowledge ... all nonsense, of course. Michelle, thanks for the link. I'll check it out sometime very soon.

Linz



Post 5

Thursday, March 25, 2004 - 12:35pmSanction this postReply
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In addition to the cite that Michelle gave on Kant, I would also recommend chapters 4 and 5 of my book AYN RAND, OBJECTIVISTS, AND THE HISTORY OF PHILOSOPHY. They are both on Kant. If that isn't enough to insure my pariah status, check out my defence of Plato in chapter one of the same book.




Post 6

Thursday, March 25, 2004 - 12:48pmSanction this postReply
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Perhaps Kant can help here. At Bxxvi he writes, ". . . though we cannot KNOW these object as things in themselves, we must yet be in position at least to THINK them as things in themselves . . . I can THINK whatever I please, provided only that I do not contradict myself. . ."
Fred Seddon



Post 7

Thursday, March 25, 2004 - 3:18pmSanction this postReply
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Fred wrote: ". . . though we cannot KNOW these object as things in themselves, we must yet be in position at least to THINK them as things in themselves . . . I can THINK whatever I please, provided only that I do not contradict myself. . ."

Some of Kant’s successors rejected his thing-in-itself and the so-called noumenal realm for the obvious reason stated: how can we know the unknowable? The above quote also raises the question of the difference between knowing and thinking.

But Kant’s noumenon is somewhat ambivalent, and can also be understood as a limiting concept rather than an actual other “realm” of reality. In that case, the phenomenal world is the real world, but it’s known from particular perspectives, through various conceptual schemes and cultural prisms.

There’s some warrant for the noumenon as a limiting concept. If human knowledge is potentially unlimited, then human beings are potentially omniscient. We could at some point know everything about everything. But if all knowledge arises with experience, omniscience implies the ability to experience the entire universe. That hardly seems likely.

In regard to Kant’s distinction between knowledge and thinking, this also seems to be a useful concept, for this reason. At any one point, human knowledge is finite and is contained within a conceptual scheme, or paradigm. Today we only know what we know. But human knowledge also expands over time. If all goes well, in 50 year’s time we should know more than we do today, possibly contained within a new paradigm. But how to get from here to there?

If all knowledge arises with experience, then knowledge is also confined by experience. In order to expand our knowledge, we need to enter a “realm” that is “outside” of current experience. Of course, there is no such literal realm “out there”. Rather, it’s “in here”, in another way of thinking, but keeping in mind that any new way of thinking is also not the whole story.

In pointing out these factors, I think Kant did humanity something of a service.

Brendan




Post 8

Thursday, March 25, 2004 - 9:35pmSanction this postReply
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Fred:
>If that isn't enough to insure my pariah status, check >out my defence of Plato in chapter one of the same >book.

You'll find they don't mind the odd pariah hereabouts, Fred....;-)

As far as Kant goes: if you strip away all the religiosity his basic insight is pretty sound. That is, there's too much information in the universe, so man has to "chunk" it down to use it - that's basically what the "categories" are. And unlike Kant, we now have Darwin to explain how they got there, rather than God.

There is no "direct access" of any living consciousness to reality. It's just not on the table to begin with. All organisms use highly processed versions of reality to survive; kind of sensory "maps" that have evolved over millenia. We know this because we've studied other organisms - the fly, the bat, the dog - and discovered they see, hear, smell the world in a way very different from us. We also know this because we've studied our own perceptions and seen how they don't always match up to what we know is the case ( for example, a film has 24 discrete frames per second, but we perceive it as continuous motion)

These "maps" have been "optimised" by millenia of interaction to fit the organism's particular evolutionary pathway. The fly needs simplified vision for its lightweight brain; but even this has been optimised in ways that improve its survival odds. (For example, a male fly knows how to spot a female fly far better than vice versa). This kind of knowledge is not only very important, it's also definitely "built-in".

Of course, it goes without saying that some maps are far more accurate than others. Undoubtedly humans have, overall, the most sophisticated processing, and as a result probably the best and most reliable "maps" available ( tho even these have a few holes in places). The mistake is to assume - as some philosphers have - that just because our maps aren't perfect, they're hopeless! In fact, nothing could be further than the truth. Bad cartographers don't survive - though those who know how to simplify and emphasise critical features will prosper. It turns out the fly's vision is extremely well suited to its niche - its simplifications and exaggerations actually *aid* its survival. So "direct access" - even if it existed - would probably have little survival advantage. After all if you are lost in the mountains, you have all the "reality" you could wish for all around - but what you really need is a damn good *map*!

- Daniel














Post 9

Friday, March 26, 2004 - 6:47amSanction this postReply
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Helen Keller is a good example of the mind's inability to develop concepts without percepts. In this context, I recommend Rand's article "Kant versus Sullivan" in her book "Philosophy: Who Needs It."  (Annie Sullivan was Helen Keller's teacher - see the play "The Miracle Worker.")

-- Michelle




Post 10

Friday, March 26, 2004 - 11:30amSanction this postReply
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Dan, I can't quite see what you're pointing to. You say:

"All organisms use highly processed versions of reality to survive; kind of sensory "maps" that have evolved over millennia. We know this because we've studied other organisms - the fly, the bat, the dog ..."

You mean you've studied processed flies, bats, and dogs. Thus, you don't know that but just think that!

"We also know this because we've studied our own perceptions and seen how they don't always match up to what we know is the case ..."

So we can see that we can't see? They don't match up to reality - which we clearly see by ...

" Undoubtedly humans have, overall, the most sophisticated processing, ..."

I can't tell if this is a virtue in your view.

"The mistake is to assume - as some philosphers have - that just because our maps aren't perfect, they're hopeless!"

And you know this how? Since you can only see the maps and not the landscape...





Post 11

Friday, March 26, 2004 - 12:58pmSanction this postReply
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Rick wrote:
>You mean you've studied processed flies, bats, and dogs. Thus,
>you don't know that but just think that!

Yes, that's right! However, I can think that with *some* justification - it's a theory that's better supported by the evidence - or less refutable - so far than the "direct access" idea. However, should good evidence emerge for "direct access" I will be happy to change my mind!

The point you make, is of course, quite correct - that the radically subjectivist argument is irrefutable, because you can always move the argument back a step ("Aha! but how do you know your "evidence" is real etc etc"). It is one of those "irrefutable falsehoods" that Nietzche talks about! But I am a follower of the philosopher of science Karl Popper, and we hold that inherently irrefutable theories are inherently useless ones. So radical subjectivism will not be my cup of tea!

Basically, a "direct acess" theory would have to explain:
1) Given that evolution is a process of optimising the organism to the environment, why the brain requires such elaborate processing in the first place - the thousands of internal steps required before an experience even reaches consciousness. Hey, just plug it straight in!

2)Why other organisms don't have "direct access"

3) Or, perhaps, that they *do*, in which case you have to explain that a fly's perception of the world is exactly like a humans, when it does not appear to be

3) Why "direct access" is an evolutionary advantage in the first place, if so few species have it? It may be, as I suggest, the other way around.

That sort of thing.

DB:"The mistake is to assume - as some philosphers have - that just because our maps aren't perfect, they're hopeless!"
Rick:And you know this how? Since you can only see the maps and not the landscape...

Because, like the lost tramper, if my map was *completely* wrong - I wouldn't be here to talk about it!....;-)

- Daniel








Post 12

Sunday, March 28, 2004 - 3:28pmSanction this postReply
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As far as Kant goes: if you strip away all the religiosity his basic insight is pretty sound. That is, there’s too much information in the universe, so man has to “chunk” it down to use it—that’s basically what the “categories” are.

This “insight” is actually Kant’s most serious error. Daniel’s references to biology in relation to the theory remind me of some lines from my verse performance “Errors of Modern Science,” published here a few days ago, concerning philosophical questions:

Who will decide? What awesome kind of sleuth?

Not scientists. No data they’re obtaining

Can ever bear on questions such as these. …

It’s for philosophy that I’m campaigning—

There only can the root facts be defended;

I am also reminded of Ayn Rand’s statement, “Philosophy is primarily epistemology.”

The Kantian notion of “seeing things in themselves” is a mystical construct, not a valid concept formed by valid means. The senses being man’s only contact with reality, all concepts must ultimately be based on the information provided by their operation. This includes concepts of consciousness. Although consciousness cannot be experienced by the senses in the usual way, persons do have experience of it in the course of using all their other senses; thus the whole realm of sentience is also opened to human thought. When you add in external observations of other people and of animals, and contrasting observations of plants and inanimate objects, there turns out to be plenty of material for forming concepts of consciousness of all kinds: logic, reason, memory, thought, emotion, etc.

When we proceed in this proper way, there’s no point at which we can form a concept of awareness that does not involve some means of awareness. All the instances of awareness from which we formed our concept of it involve some form of contact with the world, some operations performed that result in a certain mental state. Thus, that is what is meant by consciousness—any other idea has no foundation, is arbitrary. To criticize the accuracy of a form of consciousness on the basis that it involves “processing” is to use a standard of judgment based upon a fantasy. “Consciousness is the faculty of awareness—the faculty of perceiving that which exists. … Awareness is not a passive state, but an active process. … On the higher, conceptual level, the process is psychological, conscious and volitional. In either case, awareness is achieved and maintained by continuous action” (Ayn Rand, Introduction to Objectivist Epistemology).

“That which exists,” of course, is the only reasonable interpretation of the phrase “the thing in itself”—and what exists is what we perceive. I think that many who are taken in by Kant’s theory have actually failed to distinguish between the two axiomatic concepts of existence and consciousness, and the fact that neither can be reduced to terms of the other.

Daniel has some premises about the idea of certainty that I will answer this way. On December 11, 2003, a participant in a discussion at SOLO wrote:

I can tell you, Rand was wrong. There ain’t no such thing as certainty, contextual or otherwise. Do I claim to be certain about this? No! … Do I claim to be around 98% sure? Yes.

There is little one can say to this sort of confusion except: “No, you don’t. Of that I am certain.”




Post 13

Sunday, March 28, 2004 - 10:35pmSanction this postReply
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Rodney wrote:
>To criticize the accuracy of a form of consciousness on the basis that it involves “processing” is to use a standard of judgment based upon a fantasy.

But I wasn't criticising it. I was saying "processing" was essential for survival. It's a benefit.

We have the evidence of the senses to work with, plus our reason. With this, we *examine the evidence*, and draw conclusions. Some of these conclusions may contradict the prima facie evidence ie: the earth is round, even though it may be flat where I live!.

>Daniel has some premises about the idea of certainty that I will answer this way. On December 11, 2003, a participant in a discussion at SOLO wrote:
"I can tell you, Rand was wrong. There ain’t no such thing as certainty, contextual or otherwise...."

In my opinion, your interlocutor was wrong. Rand admitted that uncertainty was inevitable to some extent. For example, in the IOE, in a discussion about exact measurement, she says:

"AR: ...But more than that, isn't there a very simple solution to the problem of accuracy? Which is this: let us say that you cannot go into infinity, but in the finite you can always be absolutely precise simply by saying, for instance: "Its length is no less than one millimeter and no more than two millimeters."
 
Prof. E: And that's perfectly exact.
 
AR: It's exact. "

Now most people will recognise this as the "measurement problem" - an issue that cuts to the core of certainty. And one has to say that her proposed solution here is an uncontroversial one. The main difference is most people would say that something was "roughly between one and two millimeters long", whereas Rand would say that something was "exactly between one and two millimeters". So the difference, it turns out, is strictly verbal.

My position on uncertainty is the Popperian one; that absolute certainty is unnecessary anyway, and one should only match the degree to the precision of one's needs (which is what I take it Rand is saying in the IOE anyway). One does not need a pair of electron microscopes to find the way to the shops; a pair of glasses - even my old ones, which are a bit fuzzy - would be far more useful.

- Daniel








Post 14

Monday, March 29, 2004 - 12:36pmSanction this postReply
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Rodney wrote:
>To criticize the accuracy of a form of consciousness on the basis that it involves “processing” is to use a standard of judgment based upon a fantasy.

But I wasn't criticising it. I was saying "processing" was essential for survival. It's a benefit.

We have the evidence of the senses to work with, plus our reason. With this, we *examine the evidence*, and draw conclusions. Some of these conclusions may contradict the prima facie evidence ie: the earth is round, even though it may be flat where I live!.

>Daniel has some premises about the idea of certainty that I will answer this way. On December 11, 2003, a participant in a discussion at SOLO wrote:
"I can tell you, Rand was wrong. There ain’t no such thing as certainty, contextual or otherwise...."

In my opinion, your interlocutor was wrong. Rand admitted that uncertainty was inevitable to some extent. For example, in the IOE, in a discussion about exact measurement, she says:

"AR: ...But more than that, isn't there a very simple solution to the problem of accuracy? Which is this: let us say that you cannot go into infinity, but in the finite you can always be absolutely precise simply by saying, for instance: "Its length is no less than one millimeter and no more than two millimeters."
 
Prof. E: And that's perfectly exact.
 
AR: It's exact. "

Now most people will recognise this as the "measurement problem" - an issue that cuts to the core of certainty. And one has to say that her proposed solution here is an uncontroversial one. The main difference is most people would say that something was "roughly between one and two millimeters long", whereas Rand would say that something was "exactly between one and two millimeters". So the difference, it turns out, is strictly verbal.

My position on uncertainty is the Popperian one; that absolute certainty is unnecessary anyway, and one should only match the degree to the precision of one's needs (which is what I take it Rand is saying in the IOE anyway). One does not need a pair of electron microscopes to find the way to the shops; a pair of glasses - even my old ones, which are a bit fuzzy - would be far more useful.

- Daniel








Post 15

Wednesday, March 31, 2004 - 11:28pmSanction this postReply
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Rodney said:

"On December 11, 2003, a participant in a discussion at SOLO wrote:

I can tell you, Rand was wrong. There ain’t no such thing as certainty, contextual or otherwise. Do I claim to be certain about this? No! … Do I claim to be around 98% sure? Yes.

 

There is little one can say to this sort of confusion except: “No, you don’t. Of that I am certain.”  

 

Hi Rodney.  That participant was me, and I'm not the one confused: you are.  My advice:  Don't be a Randroid!

 

The proper basis for reasoning is explained here:

 

http://yudkowsky.net/bayes/bayes.html

 

I'm sticking to my guns:  There ain't no certainty.  But the question of certainty is really quite irrelevant as regards the sorts of things Kant was talking about.

 

As I understand it, Kant claimed that it's not possible to form perfect models about things: he thought that there must always be some irreducible degree of error.

 

In this he was wrong:  quite wrong.  We CAN form perfect models about things.  We can know reality.  However we can't KNOW that we know.  We can know something with 100% accuracy but we can never be 100% confident that we know it that well.

 

You see?  The question of accuracy is seperate to the question of certainty.  They're two seperate issues.

 

Issue 1: Can we form perfect model of things?  Can we fully know a thing in itself?  Can we grasp objective reality?

 

Kant answered No.  Rand answered Yes.  And I answer Yes.  Kant was wrong.  Objectivists have the right of it.

 

Issue 2:  Can we be 100% certain that we have a perfect model of something?

 

Rand answered Yes, within a given context we can be certain.  Mainstream science and philosophy answers No.  And I answer No.  Here Objectivists are wrong.

 

 

 

 

 

 


 




Post 16

Thursday, April 1, 2004 - 8:39amSanction this postReply
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My advice to you is not to use the word “ain’t” in intellectual discussions and to cut down on the name-calling. Readers will respect you more. I don’t get a good image of you from these practices.

 

The Bayes equation sounds quite valid. But if you describe a mathematical statement of the probability connection between two related phenomena in terms of other probability connections in the other direction as the “proper basis for reasoning,” and sum it up as “mind on one side and reality on the other,” you are begging the question: Does man perceive reality exclusively in terms of probabilities?

 

Probability is a mathematical method for dealing with situations in which one’s knowledge is insufficient, enabling one to act with the best result. So, naturally, one would expect a probability to change, to “slide,” with the amount of relevant information one has. There’s nothing philosophically significant in this.

 

If one accepts the theorem as the basis of all reasoning, and uses it to deny the possibility of certainty, one is confused. If you are not certain of the Bayes theorem, how can you use it to categorically deny the possibility of certainty? It is all very well to say, “I am only 98 percent sure that there is no certainty,” but the reason you’re saying that is because you believe in the Bayes theorem so completely! Besides, you are not 98 percent sure—you are adamant about it. I think that if one talks in such riddles and contradictions, one is confused. Can you decide whether I should have used the word “Besides” in this paragraph? I can’t—and I am not confused about anything. The problem is the incoherence of your position.

 

The contradiction extends to your discussion of accuracy versus certainty. You are hobbled by the idea that everything is analyzable in terms of the theory of probability, and that awareness is the building of tentative models. You’re saying that man can be right about reality, but cannot know that he is right. And yet you say you believe that man can grasp—that he can be aware of—objective reality. Let me explain why I believe this to be a contradiction by quoting myself in response to another person:

 

For Ayn Rand the issue of certainty is not exactly one of probability, with 100 percent equaling absolutism, but of awareness. Somewhere she counters those who claim universal uncertainty—that is, those whose uncertainty extends to even their theory of certainty and to the theory of probability on which they base it—by saying that to maintain this position is really to say that man is not conscious. Is man aware of reality or not? If one grants that he is, one must accept certainty as possible to man. …

The basic view taken by Rand is that man is aware, not just suspicious, of facts and of reality. This awareness constitutes a basic core of certainty, to which all other facts and all other beliefs are related. Some of them are related so intimately, and in so many ways, that they are in fact considered part of the awareness core itself, and are [also] referred to as “knowledge.” One may not be able to explicitly identify all the connections and all the logic behind one’s belief in such facts, but one knows that it is impossible to be in error about them. (Or if it is, the doubter has to provide reasons [and connect them to your core of certainty].)

(I should have added that in providing reasons for doubt, the doubter must implicitly buy into certainty.) I don’t know whether Ayn Rand would agree with the above, but that is how I interpret her position.

 

A word of advice from me: when dealing with philosophical/epistemological issues, stop talking about “models.” Building models and seeing how they work has some applications in science and technology, but continued talk about models and probability linkages in connection with scientific problems is just one more sign of the disintegration of science in our time. The business of science is to be aware of reality, of facts, and to end up knowing those facts. The vocabulary of significant correlations and model-building, I suspect, is often used as a kind of self-protection to head off the accusation that one claims to know anything. What is the source of the fear? Modern philosophy and its attack on certainty.

(Edited by Rodney Rawlings on 4/01, 10:51am)




Post 17

Friday, April 2, 2004 - 12:25amSanction this postReply
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>"If one accepts the theorem as the basis of all reasoning, and uses it to deny the possibility of certainty, one is confused."

Why?  I don't accept the theorem with certainty. 

>"If you are not certain of the Bayes theorem, how can you use it to categorically deny the possibility of certainty?"
 
But I didn't use it to categorically deny the possibility of certainty.  I said that certainty is very unlikely, not impossible.
 
>"It is all very well to say, “I am only 98 percent sure that there is no certainty,” but the reason you’re saying that is because you believe in the Bayes theorem so completely!"
 
Not so!  I don't 'believe in the Bayes theorem so completely!'.  The Bayes theorem itself is not certain.
 
>"Besides, you are not 98 percent sure—you are adamant about it."
 
No I am not 'adamant'.  I am only 98% sure.  And this probability assessment is itself not certain.    
 

>"The problem is the incoherence of your position."

 

So far you have failed to explain why my position is incoherent.

 

>"Is man aware of reality or not? If one grants that he is, one must accept certainty as possible to man. …"
 
Man is aware of something.   It may or may not be reality.  Man can be aware of reality.  But why does granting this fact require that one must accept certainty as possible? 
 
>"This awareness constitutes a basic core of certainty, to which all other facts and all other beliefs are related."
 
Why?  Man is aware of something.  All this shows that there is some core knowledge neccessary for consciousness.  It does not show that  this core knowledge is a core of certainty as such.
 
>"I should have added that in providing reasons for doubt, the doubter must implicitly buy into certainty"
 
Why?  The doubter can provide reasons for doubt by appealing to other (doubtful) beliefs in his 'belief network'.  Think of beliefs as a web, rather than a hierarchy.  There is no need to appeal to some core set of 'certain' beliefs.  Consider the Internet - a web of a huge number of connected nodes.  There are no 'core' nodes, yet the Internet doesn't fall apart.  There are likely core (foundational) beliefs (I conceded the point above), but these are simply things we suspect  neccessary for consciousness to operate, not things we can be certain of.
 
 >"The business of science is to be aware of reality, of facts, and to end up knowing those facts."
 
At last, something I agree with you about.
 
>"The vocabulary of significant correlations and model-building, I suspect, is often used as a kind of self-protection to head off the accusation that one claims to know anything."
 
No, the vocabulary of significant correlations and model-building is to head off idiot ideology and dogma.  It's only a recognition that certainty is likely impossible, not a claim that we can't know anything. 
 
>"Modern philosophy and its attack on certainty."

 
So far you've shown no sign that you know much about 'modern philosophy'. ;)
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 




Post 18

Saturday, April 3, 2004 - 12:09pmSanction this postReply
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Michelle, I took your advice and re-read the article “Kant versus Sullivan.” You claim it is a “good example of the mind's inability to develop concepts without percepts.” But surely Kant agrees. His opening line to the second edition of CPR is “There can be no doubt that all our cognition begins with experience.” (B1) The first edition sounds even more Objectivist. “Experience is, without doubt, the first product to which our understanding gives rise, by working on the raw material of sense impressions.” That’s why, for me, the article you recommend is, to say the least, curious.
Consider the title. The title leads one to believe this is an article about Kant and Sullivan. Yet Kant’s name only appears once in the whole piece. It’s really about Feyerabend versus Sullivan, specifically about Feyerabend’s article “Science Without Experience” which appeared in the Nov. 20, 1969 issue of The Journal of Philosophy, and the play The Miracle Worker by William Gibson. After dumping on Feyerabend for about 4 pages (the whole article is 13 pages in the hardcover edition) she then blames Kant for making possible a “retrogression of philosophy to the primordial, prephilosophical rationalism of the jungle.” (106) Plato and Descartes would have been ashamed of this sort of rationalism, she continues, “but not Kant. This is his baby.” (107)
Now recall the title of Feyerabend’s article and then re-read the quotation I gave above from CPR. Given that juxtaposition, one can easily see that there is no way Feyerabend’s retrogression can be laid on Kant. Feyerabend is claiming that we can have concepts without experience, which is exactly what Kant denies.
In justification of her claim, she offers one sentence. “…he [Kant] is the most fertile father of the doctrine equating the means of consciousness with its content--I refer you to his notion that the machinery of consciousness produces its own (categorial sic.) content.” (107)
Two errors here. First, consciousness is not the faculty of the categories; that job belongs to the understanding (Verstand). The title of Section III is “ON THE PURE CONCEPTS OF THE UNDERSTANDING, OR CATEGORIES.” When Kant wants to talk about consciousness, he usually using the phrase “The transcendental unity of apperception.”
But ignoring that, the idea that the categories provide “content” is simply wrong. The categories provide only the form, not the content, of knowledge. At A77-B102 Kant explicitly tells us that without the material provided by the senses, the understanding would have no CONTENT. His words are “Without this material, transcendental logic [understanding] would have no content.”




Post 19

Saturday, April 3, 2004 - 1:01pmSanction this postReply
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I thought I might post one of my favorite quotations from Kant. This appears at A277-B333. It seems to address some of the concerns in Lindsay's second paragraph.

"If by the complaints -- that we have no insight whatsoever into the intrinsic [nature sic] of things -- it be
meant that we cannot conceive by pure understanding what the things which appear to us may be in themselves, they are entirely illegitimate and unreasonable. For what is demanded is that we should be able to know things, and therefore to intuit them, without senses, and therefore that we should have
a faculty of knowledge altogether different from the human, and this not only in degree but as regards intuition likewise in kind -- in other words, that we should be not men but beings of whom we are unable to say whether they are even possible, much less how they are constituted. Through observation and analysis of appearances we penetrate to nature's intrinsic recesses, and no one can say how far this knowledge
may in time extend." ( I have translated "Innere" as "intrinsic" instead of "inner" as per Kemp Smith.)
Fred Seddon



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