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Post 40

Saturday, December 4, 2004 - 7:34pmSanction this postReply
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Next Level-

This shouldn't be my fight, but I do have a dog in it.  So I will say a few words.
I do not take the inevitability argument against or for determinism seriously, except when it is used to defend naive fatalism, because it detracts from the real issue which science needs to function.
This is really the whole essential question- the standard of truth implied here, which is the only thing that makes the idea that science justifies determinism even thinkable.

"...it detracts from the real issue which science needs to function."

In other words, you take science as your basic axiom.  You take the methodology, conclusions, and discoveries of science for granted, which means essentially you take the scientific method for granted.  Then you demand philosophy either come up with answers consistent with those conclusions, or at least get out of the way.

If one cares about the intellectual life, this is precisely backwards.  The entire edifice of science is a frail house of cards unless one accepts the validity of the empirical method in the first place- and this requires a scientific worldview.
 
How the Hell do you know the entire worldview of today's science isn't wrong- like alchemy, astrology, etc., unless you can judge the methods of science by come conception of what worldviews count as truth?  It is philosophy that answers the basic questions of what makes sense to think and what counts as knowledge.  And don't say the conclusions of scientists are blindingly obvious- the majority of people in this world disagree.  Billions of religions believers, not to mention garden variety emotionalists, parochialists, and common sensers, and a dozen more esoteric philosophical schools, most obviously postmodernism, contest the essential value and methods of modern science.  Well, are they right?  If not, how do you know?

No amount of spectacular theories or heaps of data- all relying on the scientific method- can support this, while the scientific method itself is in doubt.  And science is not axiomatic.  To justify science is truth, you first need a philosophic understanding of truth- just as historically science could not take off without a certain broad (humanist) philosophic outlook developing to make a scientific approach possible.  Science is nothing without philosophy- it has little way to find out it isn't collecting a whole mountain of empirical data and putting it together according to irrational theories to get irrational results, which could then go on for circles of centuries.  The proof is in modern psychology- where science, long lost any need to justify its empirical methods, has started applying them without thought to human beings while ignoring the nature of human beings per se- because that would require a philosophical question, which today's scientists are in the bad habit of not asking.  The result have been predictable: this 'science' is now just a lot of reasoning spun around unjustified premises: theologian's work.  And, as expected, it quickly came to serve the function theologian's work always has: inquisitions and ideology-building for the society's already known moral truths; see Thomas Szasz.  (note: I think that there are schools of psychology that contain truth- but they are those that begin with philosophical questions and don't take today's science as their model- Branden's biocentric psychology is one example)

The point is that presenting any claim to scientific knowledge without first validating knowledge is concept-stealing.  And it is impossible to validate human knowledge without access to the axiomatic concept of volition.  How scientists are to understand what data they discover in that light is their problem- they have no more right to complain about that cramping their style than it makes sense to complain that the axioms of consciousness or identity stubbornly demand all facts attend to them.  Yes, they do.  Volition works the same way; one can't justify any knowledge without it, and no subsequent facts in reality can overrule that which makes the discovery of facts possible.

Jeanine Ring




Post 41

Saturday, December 4, 2004 - 8:58pmSanction this postReply
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Jeanine,

I have no simple objection to any part of your post.  I think that your criticisms are well motivated and that if I wasn't debating anyone else right now, I would respond in detail, especially to the view that "knowledge requires validation" in a way that a determinist cannot account for.

When you claim that volition is axiomatic, are you claiming it is not a proper subject for deterministic or scientific analysis?

In your view, how does knowledge contradict determinism or the validation of knowledge?  What can a computer not do to check errors that a human being does?

Thanks.




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Post 42

Sunday, December 5, 2004 - 12:57amSanction this postReply
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What can a computer not do to check errors that a human being does?


I'll confess that I haven't been paying much close attention to the thrust of the debate here, but this comment caught my eye. In the effort to understand the exact nature of the interplay between physiology, psychology, and volition in the human mind, I think it is extremely valuable to consider the history of the field of artificial intelligence, and what progress it has made in the realization of a machine that can understand the world in the manner of humans.

I am far from an expert in that field, but I did spend the past semester in a graduate course in artificial intelligence focusing on natural language processing, My impression afterwards is that computers are no closer today to an understanding of natural language than they were thirty or forty years ago, and current researchers have absolutely no idea of how to advance them further. A coworker who took an unrelated class in machine learning commented to me that he had received a similar impression from his coursework.

There seems to have been a certainty throughout the history of computing that actual “thinking machines” are only a matter of time and technological progress. It was believed in the 60s and 70s that we would have a computer capable of understanding language by some time in the 80s; a quick look at online conversation “bots” and a few tries at using automated translation systems shows just how far the work on language processing has yet to go. Moore's law predicts that within the next couple of decades, the computational capacity of the average computer will exceed our present estimate of the “computational capacity” of the human brain; this is often taken as a sign that the day when “machine intelligence” will exceed human intelligence is not long in coming, but this neglects the fact that the progress of quality of the AI algorithms which would need to run on the hardware of that day is lagging far behind the explosive growth of computational capacity.

When I look at the history of AI, what I continually see is work that underestimated the complexity of human intelligence. The more research that is done in the field, the greater the problems in creating a machine that emulates it seem to become. I do not see the state of the art as having come even close to creating a machine that can perform even the simplest tasks done easily by the least of men. Even machines that come plausibly close to emulating animals seem to be flawed. Barring a completely radical innovation in the way we understand both human thinking and the nature of computation, I see no realistic possibility that there will exist a “thinking machine” in the forseeable future, no matter where Moore's Law drives the computing power of the computers of tomorrow.

The implausibility of a true “thinking machine” given the present state of the art in AI could arguably stem simply from a flaw in the approach to the problem, and some brilliant mind could within the coming decades unlock the secret of how the human brain does what it does and create a completely unanticipated sort of machine to emulate it. But what I see in AI research and in the way both computers and humans work leads me to suspect that there is something more than insufficient computing power or algorithmic flaws holding it back. Computers are among the most perfectly deterministic creations imaginable; the failure of the best minds in computing to bring them anywhere near human thought says to me that there is something in the human mind fundamentally different from the workings of a computer. Determinism—at least the sort of determinism working in a computer—seems insufficient to explain or emulate a human mind.

I really shouldn't try to write things of this length at e in the morning, after already staying up well past my bedtime with The Passion of Ayn Rand. Apologies if this is rambling, incoherent, or irrelevant—this isn't a scholarly study; just my impression on the current state of “machine intelligence” and its implications for determinism.



Post 43

Sunday, December 5, 2004 - 7:51amSanction this postReply
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Nature Leseul,

I'm far from an expert.  I agree with a part of your impression of AI, but since you haven't specified the sort of determinism going on in the human mind and the sort of determinism going on in the computer in writing your conclusion, it is a bit of a red herring.  You haven't specified the nature of the failing algorithms either, for example.

The question is this: what aspect of the mind defies computer simulation?  I asked Jeanine this question for error checking.

However, you are free to introduce other kinds of mental behavior that you think defy simulation in terms of information processing.




Post 44

Sunday, December 5, 2004 - 8:36amSanction this postReply
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Next-

unfortunately, I just lost an hour's philsophical answer to you to computer glitch at the exact last moment,and I don;t have the heart to recreate it.  Unfortunately I am bowing out and you will go unanswered.




Post 45

Sunday, December 5, 2004 - 2:24pmSanction this postReply
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First of all, it is a fact that Peikoff uses the word, "determinant", in a manner synonymous with "influence".  I provided references.  If you cannot explain to me why he does so using your distinction between the words, I will assume that your object of whim-worship understands that "determines(v)" and "influence(v)" can be used synonymously, the former ("determine") being used more often with an "all other things being equal" clause, and the other being used more often when there is a claim that that the "influence" is working in a system with other influences, but both being quite synonymous. 
Here is what Peikoff says in OPAR, page 65, which you take out of context in the hope that no one will check what you are saying.  To expose your dishonesty, I will quote the relevant section below.

In the following section, Dr. Peikiff is explaining how Objectivism refutes the alleged dilemma that man's actions, mental or physical, either have no causes (indeterminism), which makes them random --  or man's actions are determined by antecedent factors, meaning man is not free

              "Objectivism regards this dilemma as a false alternative. Man's actions do have causes; he does chose a course of behavior for a reason -- but this does not make the course determined or the choice unreal. It does not, because man himself decides what are to be the governing reasons.  Man chooses the causes that shape his actions."

             "To say that a higher-level choice was caused is to say: there was a reason behind it, but other reasons were possible under the circumstances, and the individual himself made the selection among them." 

              "The factors shaping a thought process, to stay with our example, do not work automatically. A man's previous knowledge, I have said, is one possible determinant. Such knowledge, however, does not apply itself automatically to every new topic he considers. If he relaxes his mental reins and waits passively for inspiration to strike him, his past conclusions, however potentially germane, will not necessarily thrust themselves into prominence.  On the contrary, the man who turns inwardly sloppy may know a certain point perfectly well, yet end up with a conclusion that blatantly contradicts it.  The contradiction eludes him because he is not paying full attention, he is not working to integrate all the relevant data, he is not ruled by a commitment to grasp the truth. As a result, his own knowledge becomes ineffective, and his mental processes are moved instead by factors such as random feelings and associations."

In this context it is clear that Peikoff's use of the term "determinant" refers to factors that the individual, by choice, has accepted.  There is your explanation of how volition can be its own cause.

So,  Piekoff's use of the word "determinant" in the middle of that section does not mean that influence and determine are synonyms in the way you are desperately trying to imply.  The section makes clear that a thing is a "determinant" only after man, by full, voluntary choice, accepts it as such.  It is preposterous to claim that this means that any factor that influences man does so without his voluntary acceptance.



Now, given that a lot of your arguments rest on this misunderstanding of the nature of an "influence", I will stress its importance.

You cannot say: "Ayn Rand's Objectivism was a major influence on my thought" without arguing that Objectivism is a part of the cause.  If before you read Objectivism, you were an altruist who gave alms to beggars, and after reading Rand, you stopped doing so and claimed that Objectivism was a part of the influence or that Rand influenced your thinking, you cannot claim that your reading of Rand was not a part of the cause of your repudiation of alms-giving and maintain Rand was an influence.

What I say is that Objectivism is part of what caused me to change because I chose to accept it.  I could have read Rand and chosen to become a communist if I had so wished.  Yes, Objectivism influences me -- because I chose to allow it to.  But that choice is fully free.



 
We know this because it is axiomatic, in the sense that any claim to knowledge -- including your claim that our behavior is determined -- presupposes the ability to make this basic choice free of any external factors.  If you are not free to choose to think or not to think,  then you do not know the extent to which you control your mind versus the extent to which it is affected by deterministic factors -- and thus you have no way of knowing whether your conclusions are the result of a process of thought governed by logic, or merely the result of some genetic predisposition to believing in determinism. 
This is nonsense.  If you agree that human beings can make errors even when they have free will (on your argument), and they can make them while believing that they are in full control of their free will (on your argument), what are you proving?  Do human beings know to what extent that their errors are affected by internal and external factors according to your position?  If so, how?

Does this statement reflect your opinions reached by a process of reason -- or did some external factor cause you to take this position?  Do you believe in determinism because the evidence convinced you, or did some unknown factors influence your thinking?  Perhaps some people -- you for example -- believe what you believe because your genes make you so inclined, but others, like me, are genetically predisposed to objectivity, and when we look at the evidence, we see no reason to believe in determinism. 

If outside factors can determine our thinking without our knowledge, how do we know when our convictions are the result of an honest effort to understand reality versus when they are simply determined?  The answer is, you would never know.  And that is why it is contradictory to argue that:
1) you are absolutely, positively, beyond-any-shadow-of-doubt certain that determinism is true, but
2) you do not know why you believe it.



 
And what about the determinist who argues that volition consists of factors?  And what about the determinist who tries to correct the external factors determining the improper thinking of others?
How did you decide to believe that volition consists of factors?  Is it because it is the truth, or is it because external influences made you think that way?  If all thinking is determined, how will you know that the reason you are trying to correct those external factors is because they truly cause improper thinking, versus the possibility that your are genetically predisposed against those factors?

Did you decide, or was it determined? 


  1) Are you arguing that brain size has nothing to do with intelligence?  Are you arguing that there are no parts of the brain associated with one's ability to "focus", in your rationalistic view?  Where are your empirical studies on the phenomenon of "focusing"?  Have the empirical studies distinguished it from concentrating?  Evidence?

2) A positive correlation in science, especially one above 0.3 in the biological sciences, and has been consistently reproduced or bettered in every single study I know of which was performed, is not trivial.  If you know any experts that testify to the contrary, I would like to hear from them.

3) What would explain the big-brainers who don't get out of school would be an appeal to other influences.

Correlation does not prove causation.  If I identified 10,000 heavy drinkers and 10,000 abstainers, I would find that the incidence of lung cancer is much higher in the population of heavy drinkers. Does this prove that alcohol causes lung cancer?  No, it just means that heavy smokers are also often heavy drinkers.

And how can we trust any empirical study when we ask someone why they did something?  Will they answer honestly or will it be determined?



 
There is no duality or gap between matter and consciousness.  Volitional consciousness is an attribute of man's mind.  It arises out of the biological identity of man.

 How?  On your account, it just does.  When did ignorance become a justification for arrogance?

At the same time that determinism became an excuse for stupidity.  The existence of a volitional consciousness is so overwhelmingly self-evident that to disbelieve it requires a staggering evasion of one's own state of mind.  The ability to choose to focus one's mind and think, or sit in a blank stupor, is a choice everybody has every minute you're awake.  And you know it.



 
A poor choice is still a free choice, not a "determined" one.  Many people who are depressed make the proper decision to seek help.  Many diabetics make the proper decision to get insulin.  There is no evidence here that any decision they make is determined by their condition.  Certainly, they take their own conditions into account -- and some individuals will decide to evade reality and do nothing about their condition.  But it is still their decision.
No, it is always to some degree their RESPONSIBILITY, but sometimes, it is not their decision, as I told you earlier. 

But why, then,  should it be their responsibility?  If they do not have the ability to choose freely, how can they be held accountable for their actions?  Consider all the terrible influences of a serial killer's childhood -- could he have really been expected to turn out better? Do we not owe him an apology instead of a death sentence?



 
Sometimes, it is the parents of such individuals who force them into counseling, and in all cases, it is a confluence of factors, including the knowledge and the availability of treatment. And once again, you refuse to count "influences" as "determinants".

How can you possibly know that the parents have any influence? There is no telling what external factors finally determined these people to get help. 



 
And what kind of proof would satisfy you?  Your becoming extremely depressed (like Rand's cancer convinced her of the causal chain)?  Brain scans of depressed people showing the physical problems and imbalances that characterize their problems?  Specify the evidence you require and what form it must take.

But I don't have the power to specify anything.  I have no way of knowing whether my thoughts on the matter are mine or are determined by outside factors.




 
This is unbelievable.  The fact that some individuals are willing and able to choose not to let their conditions ruin their lives is presented as evidence of determinism?  This is your evidence?

No.  That some individuals are unable to make certain decisions in one state of mind, but are able to do so when influenced by chemicals is my evidence.
 

How did you come to the conclusion that it was evidence?  Maybe it is not evidence, and some external factor makes you think it is.




 
Nonsense.  You are completely evading the context here,  There is a considerable body of scientific evidence linking smoking and lung cancer (evidence, incidentally, which was not around when Rand would have made that statement).  You have presented nothing supporting determinism that even remotely resembles that kind of proof.
Because determinism presupposes proof.  You have to accept the view of complex causation before you can even appreciate the view of the determinist.


But what I accept is not up to me. Since volition consists of factors that taken together determine the choices I make, and since a certain set of antecedents that comprise those factors can have only one possible outcome, then it is clear that whatever I do next is outside my control.  I do not the ability to accept or reject anything.  It is all those factors and antecedents comprising volition that will determine what gets accepted or rejected.

Clearly, the concepts of discussion and persuasion are out the window.   May as well shut down SOLO.


 

















Post 46

Sunday, December 5, 2004 - 4:23pmSanction this postReply
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Jeanine,

I understand - that has happened quite a bit to me.  But I have no serious argument with people like you who defend free will.  It is the ignoramuses who have never read philosophy outside of Objectivism and pose as experts I take issue with.


Michael,

I have no problem with the possibility that Objectivism has influenced you to the point that you cannot empathetically debate this issue.  But since I am not omniscient, I cannot determine that *before* the discussion - I have to investigate the factors affecting your beliefs and assume whatever I think is reasonable before discussing.  Moreover, there are people who might read these posts and want to see what the determinist position is about.  So your arguments might sound witty to you, but they are probably true in a sense you don't intend.

Either Peikoff used the word "determinant" to mean "influence" or he did not.  If he did, whether the influence is chosen or not, it is an influence.  There is no point discussing this issue if you cannot understand that.

So my point is that you cannot accept that something is an "influence" and deny that it plays a causal role in a decision, regardless of whether the influence is chosen or not.
If you deny this point, then say that you deny it and let's terminate the discussion.

In the same vein, smoking is an influence in the manifestation of lung cancer.  Does it cause lung cancer by itself?  No.  There are other factors that are involved, including genetically influenced factors, or all heavy smokers would have cancer.  But does smoking play no role in causing cancer?  You have said yes, that it does play a role.

Returning to the main point, either depression influences volition or it does not.  What is your position?  That people choose to let depression influence their volition?

Cheers.

(Edited by Next Level on 12/05, 4:29pm)




Post 47

Monday, December 6, 2004 - 3:34amSanction this postReply
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I have written on all the isssues "Next Level" (is this someone's name or what?) lists as if these were hurdles impossible for a champion of free will to manage--both The Pseudo-Science of B. F. Skinner (1974) and Initiative--Human Agency & Society (2000) address psychotherapy and other matters, including what "science needs" (which surely cannot determine the nature of reality). As to predicting human behavior, that too is discussed in these works as well as in Ed Pols's, John Searle's, Nathaniel Branden's and other people's cases for (not indeterminism but) self-determinism or agent causality. (As a hint, when people choose to make commitments in their lives--to a spouse, a career, a legal order, a friendship and so forth--this enables them and others to predict what they will do, although never with the kind of reliability that we find in astronomy or mechanics because they can choose to change their minds).



Post 48

Monday, December 6, 2004 - 10:18amSanction this postReply
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But I have no serious argument with people like you who defend free will.  It is the ignoramuses who have never read philosophy outside of Objectivism and pose as experts I take issue with.
If this is directed at me, I will simply point out that I do not claim to be an expert, but I do know a contradiction when I see one.

I have no problem with the possibility that Objectivism has influenced you to the point that you cannot empathetically debate this issue.


I can empathize with emotional problems.  See below.


 
Moreover, there are people who might read these posts and want to see what the determinist position is about.  So your arguments might sound witty to you, but they are probably true in a sense you don't intend.
In what sense would that be?




Either Peikoff used the word "determinant" to mean "influence" or he did not.  If he did, whether the influence is chosen or not, it is an influence.  There is no point discussing this issue if you cannot understand that.

So my point is that you cannot accept that something is an "influence" and deny that it plays a causal role in a decision, regardless of whether the influence is chosen or not.
If you deny this point, then say that you deny it and let's terminate the discussion.
Yes, those influences do play a causal role -- but not without my knowledge and not against my will.  And that makes an enormous difference.  For instance, I despise the liberals and the left slightly more than I despise religious conservatism, so I decided to vote for Bush.  In that sense, my premises caused me to vote one way versus the other.  However, at all times it was within my power to re-examine those premises before reaching a decision -- and I did re-examine them several times before the election.

Returning to the main point, either depression influences volition or it does not.  What is your position?  That people choose to let depression influence their volition?
I think people choose how to react to depression. And that choice may well be influenced by previous choices the individual made.

For instance, an individual with an Objectivist view of the universe as a rational, predictable domain, and an Objectivist view of man as a being capable of achieving happiness, is likely to choose to fight the depression, to seek treatment.  An individual who has been frustrated his entire life and has consequently developed a view of life as malevolent and doomed, is more likely to decide that life isn't worth it and cash in his chips.  But, it is within his power at any time to re-examine his feelings and re-think his position.

The fact that we do not have immediate, direct control over our emotions leads many people to conclude that they cannot influence their feelings at all, that feelings are what they are and you cannot do a damn thing about them.  This leads people to deny, evade and repress unpleasant feelings to the point that they (to use Branden's term) "disown themselves".  If an extreme depression strikes such a person, they will feel helpless and may well conclude that they have no option but to suffer or commit suicide.  Unfortunately, some choose the latter.

A lifetime of repression and refusal to introspect does indeed leave one more emotionally vulnerable and in less control of one's state of mind.  However, one always retains the option of choosing to think.




Post 49

Monday, December 6, 2004 - 10:27amSanction this postReply
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Dr. Machan,

I will make it a point to get your book within the next couple of weeks. For the record, what science needs doesn't determine reality.  It is the success of scientific inquiry into human nature, including the causes of our choices, that has actually upped the stakes in this debate.  As scientific findings explain the biological basis of many behaviors and the environments in which they will thrive, many people still want a return to a libertarian free will that denies the importance of those factors.

I don't think that those "hurdles" are impossible for a defender of self-deterministic free-will to manage, if manage means "construct arguments for them".  The real question is always how the theory is tested against reality and what the ideological and empirical constituents of one's worldview are. The truth is that one's specific view of the question of whether human beings have free will or not is going to resolve a lot of the practical issues, which are more often resolved by the precise meaning one attaches to "free will" and "self determinism" and how they are linked with those practical issues.

For some people, resting axiomatically on volition is sufficient.  For some people, this claim is insufficient, their question being whether the will is a proper subject of reductive analysis.

For some people, the brain has to be "normal" for an individual to be capable of self-determinism.  For others, differences in brains and similarities in brains cause differences and similarities in human behavior consistent with determinism. 

For some people, epistemic freedom makes no sense if determinism is true.  For others, epistemic freedom can only be a proper subject of rational analysis if determinism is true.

For some people, the key point is that many futures are consistent with the known and unknown facts.  For others, the key point is that only one future is consistent with the known and unknown facts.

For some people, the question is whether every human being has the potential to achieve whatever he or she wants to achieve.  For others, the question is whether human nature is "constrained", to take a term from Sowell, and if so, how.

For some people, intelligence is purely a construct of tests.  For others, it is a biological phenomenon partly revealed by tests.

Even Dennett will not deny that the human being is capable of self-development, all other things being equal (which they most certainly are not), but you obviously disagree with his conception of the self and his metaphysics.

Dennett speaks for me when he writes that self-determinists and libertarians are looking for "moral levitation".  According to compatibilists, we have hang gliders, hovercrafts, jets and such which help us to fly, but only "moral levitation" will satisfy self-determinists.

So I will get your book, and see how you dialectically resolve the paradox of free will vs. determinism.

Cheers.




Post 50

Monday, December 6, 2004 - 10:42amSanction this postReply
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Yes, those influences do play a causal role -- but not without my knowledge and not against my will.  And that makes an enormous difference.  For instance, I despise the liberals and the left slightly more than I despise religious conservatism, so I decided to vote for Bush.  In that sense, my premises caused me to vote one way versus the other.  However, at all times it was within my power to re-examine those premises before reaching a decision -- and I did re-examine them several times before the election.

Has it ever struck you that your knowledge (what you have accepted as true), mental processes etc. when summed up, ARE your will, and that the degree to which you are dissociating them is evidence of an implicit, unprofessed dualism?

There is no "you" standing over here, and your "ideas" standing over there.  They are different perspectives of the same thing.




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Post 51

Monday, December 6, 2004 - 5:13pmSanction this postReply
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There is no "you" standing over here, and your "ideas" standing over there.  They are different perspectives of the same thing.
This is precisely false.  The reason to distinguish "you" from physical objects is that one is aware of them, and this awareness persists regardless of objects.  Precisely the same is true regarding mental objects, such as ideas.

Now I think a conclusion from this is that one's "ideas" and "memories" which are usually seen as part of "you" or internal to consciousness are not so any more than physical objects, and I support a phenomenological perspective and come to conclusions Rand would find shocking.  But I still think the above statement is exactly wrong; it would equally imply there is no "you" separate from one's perceived physical entitities (note I strongly defend Randian realism over Cartesian representationalism; I would just push forward and eliminate Cartesian ontology for a view similar to Husserl's and Sartre's).

Also, you imply you have no objection to my views, but you do object to others here who supposedly haven't read any philosophy other than Rand.  Forgive me, but that is not my impression of many in SOLO, certainly not Dr. Machan whom you are debating here.

And do you truly find my motives so innocent?  Surely, I have written thing in this forum that must offend the consensus view of scientific culture more than Rand's Objectivism could.  I am, after all, a practicing feminist Pagan.

Jeanine Ring.




Post 52

Monday, December 6, 2004 - 10:50pmSanction this postReply
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Jeanine,

ON READING PHILOSOPHY WIDELY
 
My philosophical inspiration is Brand Blanshard.  I try to emulate his empathetic style of debate as much as I can, and hence I strive to understand what my opponents find valuable in their positions when reviewing and responding to them.  I admit that I am not always civil, but that is a personal limitation more than anything else. 

It is quite possible for a person to see what is reasonable in a philosophical perspective and still reject it for a variety of reasons, including the emotions vested in their current position and the fact that position is not practical to them.  Therefore, I no longer stake too much on agreement - I stake much more on reasonableness.

In fact, one can learn from misguided or disagreeable philosophers writing in the proper reasoning style.  As much as I disagree with aspects of Humean skepticism, I actually enjoy reading Hume.  The same goes for Russell, whose left leaning positions on political issues can sometimes make very angry, but who was never too proud to renounce an argument or position that he saw was wrong (he did it fairly often for a great philosopher).  Among modern philosophers (ever since I started reading modern philosophy after realizing that it wasn't as irrational as Objectivism made out), I like Bonjour and Dennett the most, though I believe MANY others, including Searle and Stove, can also be read profitably.

However, there is nothing I dislike more than misrepresenting one's ideas to get a debating advantage or refusing to lay out your opponent's position in terms that he understands so you can actually get clear that you see what he is saying, even if you do not agree with it or you think that the implications of his position are different from what he thinks they are.  I think that Rand was guilty of it so often that she partly damaged the ability of many smart people (her fans) to deal honestly with philosophical issues.

For example, Nathaniel Branden reviewed "Reason and Analysis", a book written by the great rationalist Brand Blanshard in which Blanshard partly sketched out his view of determinism.  Now, Blanshard wrote a lot of work investigating the nature of reason and thought.  Did Blanshard just become irrational and propose determinism because he didn't understand what he was thinking ( a man who was actually trying to understand what made people think the way they do)? That such an intellect should have seen something of value in determinism should have given Branden room for pause.  Objectivists could have cited one determinist (Blanshard) so we could see what determinists were actually writing and what was so seductive about their position.  Even if determinism is wrong, it is immoral to caricature the arguments of determinists by refusing to explain the true source of their position, which is the claim that the will can be reductively analyzed.  Blanshard's favorite argument for determinism was that the structure of an argument was a necessary cause for a particular conclusion which often automatically appeared in the mind.  Even if the argument doesn't convince you, as it did me, I see no reason why it shouldn't be debated. 

Maybe according to Objectivism, Blanshard isn't a determinist because he admitted the existence of volition.  However, he never agreed with the libertarian view of volition.  But it seems that when I admit that volition is real, like C.D Broad, Sir David Ross and Daniel Dennett, all notable 20th century philosophers and determinists, do in one form or another, it is a radically new phenomenon to some Objectivists who are going strictly by Branden's caricature of determinism.  All these philosophers rejected the position of Skinner on behaviorism, but still agreed that human motives were proper subjects of causal analysis.

So, I have no problem with people who have read a philosopher, understand his argument and disagree with it.  Philosophy is a difficult and abstract subject with subtleties that are sometimes nice but trivial, so empirically testable and practical knowledge is what I prefer to discuss when I can.  I just do not like people who think that they can refute an argument in detail without really understanding it.

Dr. Machan has directed me to his book, so I will address him when I read it.  I have often disagreed with his position on quite a few things, but I enjoyed many of his articles when I was more politically libertarian than I currently am.  In addition, I do not like to engage people who have produced the substance of their positions elsewhere without having read these positions.  I think "go and read my book" is a valid rejoinder to certain questions, because a worldview is not going to be meaningfully engaged without understanding it.  Moreover, it is tiring to write out one's refutations of this or that point repeatedly when they are already in print somewhere.

Back to the real discussion at hand. 


IS THERE A RATIONAL ALTERNATIVE TO REPRESENTATIONALISM?
I do not believe that perception gives us direct contact with physical objects and the simplest reasons are
1) the nature of hallucinations.
2) the subtle differences in perception for different people (or even the same person)  with different perceptual organs (colorblind people) and epistemological perspectives (which of the tables is the true table - the one when you look at it from the top of the room, from the side, the one that exists when the lights are off etc.).

Cartesian dualism in its EPISTEMOLOGICAL form, along with some form of REPRESENTATIONALISM (I like the version defended by Arthur Lovejoy in his classic but difficult work, The Revolt Against Dualism, but anyone wanting a lucid introduction to the issues can read Laurence Bonjour's Epistemology with much benefit.) is to me indefeasible. 

The thrust of representationalism is that everything we are in contact with is in some form "mental", and I do not see how anyone can doubt it.  Anyone who has hallucinated when drunk or ill (among many types of perceptual hallucinations),  has had vivid dreams and woken up, or who has made perceptual errors will have to explain why these perceptual errors are not a part of reality if he disagrees with representationalism. There are other arguments including the nature of memory, but all relevant arguments are exhaustively made in Lovejoy's classic and I have little time to repeat them, so anyone interested can look there.  For a short intro, see Bonjour.  I have no doubt that some problems can be raised against this or that particular form of representationalism, but on the whole, direct or naive realism is not a serious alternative if one admits the existence of hallucinations.

Therefore, what we call "physical objects" in everyday conversation are not physical, but are the result of a causal relationship which makes them objects in the mind.  The real physical object is, by logical and causal inference, the subject of physics, but is not given to us directly in perception.  We all live in our own mental words which we escape logical and causal inference and for practical reason, assuming we have normal minds/brains.

If I understand your viewpoint

a) you are arguing that awareness consists in part of unmediated physical objects, and there is no difference between the awareness of physical objects and mental objects, so distinguishing you from the physical objects is both metaphysically and epistemically justified.

In contrast,

b) I think that ALL things immediately perceived and experienced are mental (what common sense calls "physical objects" are mediated) and it is by scientific reasoning that we arrive at objective reality.  Therefore, I am everything I directly perceive and think, and it is by reasoning and the reliable nature of perception that you escape solipsism.

Feel free to clarify if I have misread you.

ON PAGANISM

My worldview is mine.  I do not waste my time getting offended at this or that because human beings have their reasons for believing what they do.  So I don't seriously concern myself seriously with things that do not directly impact me.  There might problems with this, but the alternatives are not unproblematic.

In the long term, I always believe that as long as science and property rights are distributed, there will always be progress somewhere on earth.  My individualism is about ME, my altruism is about alleviating the suffering of others to the degree that I reasonably can while achieving my own goals, and I hope that the systemic effects of my actions do something positive for society.

I might find your paganism ultimately irrational, but I find Christianity to be ultimately irrational too.  I believe that an individual's temperament precedes his or her explicitly held beliefs.  Therefore, naming yourself this or that does little for me. I've read and enjoyed some of your posts, and disliked others.  If we have a serious conflict of interests, it is unlikely to be on a web board.

Cheers.

(Edited by Next Level on 12/06, 10:59pm)




Post 53

Monday, December 6, 2004 - 11:41pmSanction this postReply
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Next Level-

Allow me to say, simply, that you respond with a philosopher's honour, in the best sense that Leo Strauss meant by the term philosopher.  We have many differences- starting with the fact that I balked at my first choice of vocation- philosophy- because I found myself completely vitiated in the atmosphere of analytic philosophy- and I confess I remember Bonjour, and he bored me to tears.  But none of that really matters- you show yourself to take the examined life seriously.  Having lived that live and abandoned it, I know what seriousness and continuous honesty that requires.  My blessings for that.

More than this, let me just make a few scattergonne notes: 1) on sense-objects, I do regard hallucination and perceptual "mis"judgement cases as actual objects; to me the question is what kind of objects- please understand I regard mental enities, including 'hallucinations', as fully real and external.  2) On Rand, I don't think she consciously mischaracterized, I think she had both took a passionate novelist's style for granted and was a very bad scholar.  I do agree she mispresented others- for instance Hegel, Marx, Nietzsche, Sartre- somewhere between somewhat and atrociously badly.  3) are you familiar with Sartre's "ontological object or so-called "proof" (in Rand's sense, a validation) of an "external" world, i.e., the "transcendence of the ego."?

That's all for now.  I have homework assignments to do.

Jeanine Ring




Post 54

Tuesday, December 7, 2004 - 5:34amSanction this postReply
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Hi Next,

Your depth of appreciation for philosophers doesn't seem to match your depth of perception.

Newberry




Post 55

Tuesday, December 7, 2004 - 6:37amSanction this postReply
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Jeanine,

I haven't read Sartre, though I intend to do so at some time in my life.  I mean, he did win a Nobel Prize so he had to be a good stylist, even if I dislike his philosophy.  Existentialism just had a very base view of reason (I once tried reading Heidegger in a library, and when I hear people talk about him, I shake my head, and as much as I respect Nietzche's intuitions - for lack of a better words - on human nature, I cannot stand his sometimes oracular-type pronouncements.)  I do agree that the passions that Existentialists and fiery philosophers sometimes rouse in you can be intoxicating.  I just do not find fiery rhetoric to be reasonable any longer.

If you do have a plausible on-line reference for the argument, I have no problem reading it.

At least, you know that your position on direct realism, when fully developed with the implications you attach to it, is not open to Objectivism - I doubt any Objectivist wants to defend mystical experiences and hallucinations, though as a Pagan, it is quite easy for you to do so.  But I will elaborate that claim a little, because Rand's position on the issue isn't clear.

Well, Rand sometimes didn't consider a philosophical issue in depth, so her *seemingly* direct realism was probably a badly thought-out (or expressed) position. 

In OPAR, Peikoff fleshes out a better position that is a weird of direct realism, representationalism and epistemological dualism.  It is weird not because it is wrong, but like many things in Objectivism, you can't know that he is messing up the issue unless you've actually read lots of traditional philosophy. 

Peikoff discusses the views in an incompatible way.  He admits the reality of hallucinations, but if you are aware of the history, you can't mix direct perception with hallucinations/dreams and maintain a scientific realism.  But to the common reader, it all makes sense, like it did to me when I first read it.  After reading Blanshard, I made it a point not to take information on any topic from a single source again.

Now, to some degree, a disagreement on the nature of mystical experience is fundamental.  However, I have a similar disagreement with many Christians, and many of them are practically reasonable.  We can live in the everyday world, and hope that we never come across the fundamental conflicts that expose the clash between our views on mysticism in the worst possible way.

Yes, Bonjour can be tedious :).  But for me, it is more important to be reasonable than entertaining.  Blanshard was a good mix of both, as was Santayana (INCREDIBLE STYLIST), but given the choice, I go with the reasonable first.




Post 56

Tuesday, December 7, 2004 - 9:23amSanction this postReply
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I do not believe that perception gives us direct contact with physical objects and the simplest reasons are
1) the nature of hallucinations.
2) the subtle differences in perception for different people (or even the same person)  with different perceptual organs (colorblind people) and epistemological perspectives (which of the tables is the true table - the one when you look at it from the top of the room, from the side, the one that exists when the lights are off etc.).
So, you perceive that some people hallucinate and from that you conclude that what you perceive is not real.. You take the evidence of your senses as proof that you cannot trust the evidence of your senses.

 I wish you had said this to start with.  It would have saved me a lot of time, since I have a personal rule not to waste time with those who claim that they are not in touch with reality. 




Post 57

Tuesday, December 7, 2004 - 10:46amSanction this postReply
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Jeanine,

I haven't read Sartre, though I intend to do so at some time in my life.  I mean, he did win a Nobel Prize so he had to be a good stylist, even if I dislike his philosophy.  Existentialism just had a very base view of reason (I once tried reading Heidegger in a library, and when I hear people talk about him, I shake my head, and as much as I respect Nietzche's intuitions - for lack of a better words - on human nature, I cannot stand his sometimes oracular-type pronouncements.)  I do agree that the passions that Existentialists and fiery philosophers sometimes rouse in you can be intoxicating..  I just do not find fiery rhetoric to be reasonable any longer.
Mmm; I never considered Heidegger to be an "existentialist", and am leery of the term.  In the general sector of this philosophy, I recommend Husserl, Ortega y Gasset, Sartre, de Beavoiur, and Hazel Barnes (the latter a good introduction).  I've hears Merleau-Ponty and Malraux oft recommended to me, but I confess I never got around to reading them.  Anyway, I strongly disagree that "existentialists" have a 'base' view of reason.  Sartre was actually accused often of Cartesian Romationalism, and 'twas on this account that Iris Murdoch called him a "romantic rationalist" and the mention of his name is taboo among poststructuralists. And Husserl, Ortega, de Beauviour are more on pro-reason than Sartre.

BTW, correct me if I'm wrong, but Bertrand Russell won a Nobel Prize in literature, did he not?  Do you know why or what for?  He could be a good writer ("A Free Man's Worship") but he never seemed to me a litterateur.

As for fiery rhetoric, here we strongly disagree.  I think think that the emotions are rational, though not discerning; they cannot separate truth from error, but the experience of passion ultimately derives from truth.  Partwise, this is because I agree with Rand that emotion in an interpretation by premises, henceforth and implicit and momentary frissioned complexity but nevertheless a precise articulation of one's weltanschuung in the relevant context.

And overall, I believe the purpose of philosophy is happiness via the examined life.  Socrates, Diogeneses, Epicurus, Epictetus, Aurelius- these are my ultimate models as to what philosophy means, which united passion with reason by seeing the rational life's ability to be lived without contingency or appeal as permitting the most passion.  I am not a philosopher myself; circumstances of illness jarred me for a time off that track if I wanted to live, and while my soul was in exile an experiment in a different life ended up leading me far astray from anywhere I thought I would call my spiritual home.  But I ultimately think the philosophic life is about how we live- with philosophy as a profession, or history, or natural science, or literary criticism, or any aspect of the theoretical life, embodying this.  And I stand with Walter Kaufmann that in the main existential philosophy captured the spirit of dedication to life and comforting serious questions that is one part of philosophy, but neglected careful analysis and sometimes respect for reason.  My view of analytic philosophy is that is does use reason carefully, and this is a virtue.  But it is also trivial, removes from life, and its very methods are unfriendly to the invariantly passionate portion of philosophy that involves radically changing one's life to fit the life that nature, not convention, shows to be best.  One reason I appreciate and respect Objectivism is that it aspired to integrate the total passion of a Nietzsche or a Kierkegaard with the respect for reason of analytic philosophy.  I don't think it always succeeds on either case, but it is one of the closet aspirants to reintegrate philosophy on the field today.  My interest in Straussianism, Pagan intellectualism. and a few little-knowns such as Orlando Patterson and Ellen Willis, stemmed much from the same sources. 

That said, there are some temperaments which can combine the true philosophic life with an academic setting.  You speak as if you may well be one of these, and that is no small excellence.
If you do have a plausible on-line reference for the argument, I have no problem reading it.
Give me time for this one; I'm much in the wrong state of mind for research... if I forget to get back to you, please tap my shoulder via SOLOmail.
At least, you know that your position on direct realism, when fully developed with the implications you attach to it, is not open to Objectivism - I doubt any Objectivist wants to defend mystical experiences and hallucinations, though as a Pagan, it is quite easy for you to do so.  But I will elaborate that claim a little, because Rand's position on the issue isn't clear.
On Pagan issues, see below.
Well, Rand sometimes didn't consider a philosophical issue in depth,
True... sometimes.
 so her *seemingly* direct realism was probably a badly thought-out (or expressed) position. 
In OPAR, Peikoff fleshes out a better position that is a weird of direct realism, representationalism and epistemological dualism.  It is weird not because it is wrong, but like many things in Objectivism, you can't know that he is messing up the issue unless you've actually read lots of traditional philosophy.
I like your use of the term "weird" (perhaps adjusted to: 'wyrd'?); this courtesan and Pagan shall adopt it.
Peikoff discusses the views in an incompatible way.  He admits the reality of hallucinations, but if you are aware of the history, you can't mix direct perception with hallucinations/dreams and maintain a scientific realism.  But to the common reader, it all makes sense, like it did to me when I first read it.  After reading Blanshard, I made it a point not to take information on any topic from a single source again.
I think this gives far too much deference to traditional accounts of what positions are compatible with what- I very frequently think that traditional authors made implicit or purely linguistic assumptions when laying out their fundamental insights, which further tradition then codified as "common wisdom" of what positions should be package-dealed.  Your association of my indeterminism as incompatible with learning or misjudging past experiences is a perfect example.  In this case the assumption is where I believe the locus of volition to be.  Actually, like Rand, I hold volition to be very strict singular and narrow, to what Rand called "focus" (I would use 'will' in other contexts).  Unlike Rand, I think this implies that in moral judgement, one can only truly make an "evil" call in cases of evasive focus; the transmission belt of causality from ideas to emotions, ideas to action, etc., is blameless, which leads me to a much less "judgemental" socio-ethical approach... though I am not a total nonjudgementalist (i.e., when I believe I can work back to focus and any evasion), and I'm too easily tempted to judgementalism in the rare cases I share the hegemonic values... mea culpa.

Otherwise, I might surprise you that while I am totally against theories that posit "interference" with free will by genes, hormones, irrational passion, etc. (such as sociobiology)... I do believe that "social determinist" theories ofttimes contain much wisdom, if not ultimate metaphysical truth, and I am open to positions of logical or cosmological determinism which somehow integrate with free will.  I honestly wish I could think of a good way those two positions could be reconciled (I'm not impressed with stoicism, Spinoza, Liebniz, Ryle, etc. on this issue... don't know Blandshard), because I have my own reasons to start really wondering, to my own astonishment, whether there is some "clockwork" including human volition in the larger picture after all.  Actually, I believe I come to this conclusion precisely according to the influences (not theory) of the Stoa that led them to similar conclusions.  Enough said.

BTW, by direct realism is not Anglo-American; I am a "constructivist" as in "social constructivist", a position which Randian perceptual contextualism is to my mind compatable.  In other words, I believe that emphasis, focus, and definition originate from consciousness (Sartre: the 'for itself') upon existence (Sartre: the 'in itself') and that objective reality, in Rand's definition, is always not a representation but a selective focus.  This is, as I understand it, Sartre's position, except Sartre believed one could strip away the Kantian categories and experience the sans conscious-created value universe of the in-itself.  I'm not so sure whether this is possible myself; it seems more likely Sartre is selectively focusing in his own manner; I follow to some degree Foucault's (implied) criticism of Sartre here, though I would go past Foucault's conclusions.

I suppose my position could be termed less "direct realism" than "transcendental realism".  I just made up that term, but I think it agree with the vague concept of "transcendentalism" qua Emerson, which isn't so surprising, as it was reflection on the continental post-Kantian line of philosophy that got me to this position, and I do thinking about it end up agreeing with the transcendentalists (to the degree I understand them) in just about every branch of philosophy.  (Incidentally, my 'Pagan' philosophical conclusions in all but name ocurred prior to any sympathy with Paganism beyond the artistic and unserious speculations).
Now, to some degree, a disagreement on the nature of mystical experience is fundamental.  However, I have a similar disagreement with many Christians, and many of them are practically reasonable.  We can live in the everyday world, and hope that we never come across the fundamental conflicts that expose the clash between our views on mysticism in the worst possible way.
Mmm... actually, I remain dubious, though not closed, to the concept of "mystical experience".  I would stress that mystical experience, proper, entails a feeling of indescribable wondrous and unity with the cosmos.  This I remain hesitant on, because I have extreme epistemological trouble believing that perception *can* operate without the selective focus or intentionality that mystical experience implies... and if it did, half my instincts suggest that Sartrean nausea at meaningless would me more likely than unity with Brahman.  However, I am very shaky and uncertain on this issue... so I will just say that mystical experience in the technical sense is something I have not experienced.

That said, I think you mean by mystical experiences something broader, generally termed "religious experience", which implies an inner sensory perception of an aware entity capable of being values as an axiological archetype (simpler: archetypical subtle body).  You are correct that my philosophy does not bar perception of such an entity; beyond this, as a courtesan I must keep my own counsel.

On hallucinations- you might find it a little less scary if I say that mental hallucinations can easily by inner sensory ideas mistaken  for outer sensory ones, and in some cases the proper response to hallucination is to remind oneself that this real entity is mental, not physical- and I see no reason that wither unwise valuation nor physical brain damage could not produce such a situation.  That said, I am extremely skeptical of contemporary positivism's classification of all nonstandard perceptions as 'hallucinatory', and in some cases am quite upset because it is my opinion that valid perceptions ruled out by bad Cartesian ontology and epistemology are getting labelled as delusions and disorders, and fully rational and honest people are as a result being anywhere from scorned to imprisoned by a reigning scientific theocracy.  I myself fall under plenty of DSM-IV descriptions- but I simply will not discuss this, precisely because positivism's self-supporting definitions will reduce me to a lab animal in seconds and treat my eccentricities by a double standard.  (Perhaps the composers of the DSM would like to know that in order to qualify for transgender therapy, it is accepted cultural defense among transgenders to lie to psychologists and researchers to mimic the stereotypes to the closest degree feasible.  This is something I can only say safely because I have a very liberal therapist, am very femme myself in presentation, and am most of the way through my transition- otherwise I'd risk being cut off from hormones.).
Yes, Bonjour can be tedious :).  But for me, it is more important to be reasonable than entertaining.  Blanshard was a good mix of both, as was Santayana (INCREDIBLE STYLIST), but given the choice, I go with the reasonable first.
I think this is a false dichotomoy.  'Entertaining' is a downplay of 'artistic'; and it is my opinion that the core of artistic experience is rational not nondiscerning (a position one can find support for in Aristotle).  This is at the core of the intellectualist form of erotic philosophy (Blake is likely the best reference, or try Allan Bloom's Love and Friendship; Reich and the late Foucault are very close)are very close; though the main tradition is oral and esoteric {and very messed up with neo-Platonism and in most cases mixed in with the emotionalist philosophy of the times... sigh}).  So I have nothing against art or insight in philosophy- Walter Kaufmann spoke of "the philosophic flight" from which one gets a new vantage, using G.E. Moore and Wittgenstein as examples.  As for "reasonable"- I don't think it's a virtue generally.  I think rationality is a virtue, but 'reasonable' to me is what makes sense according to our habitual perceptions.  I accord honor both to what makes sense according to convention-crimping unsparing logic and convention-crimping unsparing insight- I respect the philosopher and the sensate.  But I don't respect reasonableness, and am generally of the notion that the common sense Descartes thought was shared by all men is very petty and limited to a corrupted, minima;, and dishonest form of scientific reason adapted to day to day utility as shaped by social factors- exactly as I picture religion as practiced by most as less often containing sound wisdom than banality with a minimal base of real experience corrupted by power.  I am, like Rand, and elitist in the sense that I think authentic experience requires a break from normal life (of many kinds)- convention and nature do not in principle mix.  I think more people do this than Rand gave credit for, and not always in the places Rand credited them.  But nevertheless, I don't care if my views are rational- I care if they are authentic and rational, for which the 'reasonable' and the 'decent', respectively, have mainly shunnings, slammed doors, prisons, hemlock, and the stake.

As for Santayana, I respect him highly, though I am not that well read in him.

As for Bonjour, I don't remember him well enough to render fair judgement.  But analytic philosophy I find often all too reasonable and so narrow in lack of art and insight it is incapable of the imagination and vision from new angles to question wrong trains of thought without a massive waste of time and effort- and I think the same is true of, say, cognitive psychology or econometrics or other contemporary developments.  I don't think their tediousness often masks excellence- though I do think the tedium of an Aristotle, and Aquinas, a Hegel, or a Heidegger does mask real excellence (and beauty).  Ultimately, I would like to see more reason and more passion, and agree wit Herbert Marcuse's critique of analytic philosophy that contemporary philosophy is 'one dimensional', and that its narrow technical approach to truth allows it to take a form too adapted to contemporary society and, despite a fearless pursuit of knowledge, incapable of mounting serious or effective criticism of it (which doesn't commit me to look in a Marxist direction for such criticism).

No, I'm not easy to deal with!

Jeanie Ring   )(*)(
stand forth!



Post 58

Tuesday, December 7, 2004 - 11:13amSanction this postReply
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Jeanine,

Can you see what I mean when you read Mike's last post?  I'll respond to yours in a few.

Newberry,

Thanks for the sideswipe, because literally, I cannot understand your perceptions.

Michael,

I've sanctioned enough ignorance.

(Edited by Next Level on 12/07, 11:17am)




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Post 59

Tuesday, December 7, 2004 - 12:03pmSanction this postReply
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Michael Smith said:
I wish you had said this to start with.  It would have saved me a lot of time, since I have a personal rule not to waste time with those who claim that they are not in touch with reality.
That's a great personal rule.  I wish more people had that attitude.  I assume that was in reference to something Next said (I don't read his stuff.), but it could have applied to several who post here.  The number of rationalists on this list seems to be increasing.

Thanks,
Glenn




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