| | Jim:
John -- It appears that we are not going to have a meeting of minds on this. I am not confused at all I think we are both operating from two very different standards of evaluation. While I am saying it is possible for someone to know what they want for themselves, and it is possible that this person is sure what they want, and that this person must live or die by the consequences of that choice, you are saying it's not possible for someone to know what they want, but you know better. You are more qualified to make the decision for someone else to say no one is permitted to seek assisted suicide. Even if you are either a brain-dead vegetable that has a living will or a paraplegic, or someone terminally ill and is too weak to even lift a finger.
-- delegating your execution IS ceding that final decision making to someone else You've said this before but you haven't demonstrated why this is the case. Does a contractor who has a signed contract with you, that builds an addition to your home making the decision for you to build that addition? There is no difference morally speaking between committing the act yourself and consenting to someone they can do it on your behalf should you require physical assistance. Or if you are brain-dead and had a prior will stating death is what you prefer in that situation. This particular scenario happens all the time and did happen to my mother-in-law, who was brain-dead from an automobile accident, and the family asked she be taken off life-support because there was no hope for recovery, would you characterize the doctor and my in-laws as the "executioner"?
It happens all the time -- someone says they want to die, and actually believes that they mean to go through with it, but when they put the gun to their head, either figuratively or literally, they have an epiphany -- they don't really want to die after all. They want to live. If this decision gets delegated, you don't get that epiphany, you get a corpse. You are right Jim in that this happens a lot to people who are in severe psychological depression. But you assume someone can't have this epiphany and avert the suicide in the case of a physician assisted suicide. "Doctor, I'd rather not go through with this" "That's fine, we'll not do it then" And if they don't have that change before the suicide, they obviously never had that epiphany and must die by the consequence of their own choice. You presume society is over-run with sociopath doctors who want to just end lives. And then assume that there would be no required burden of proof to make sure the person was of sound rational faculty and consented to the suicide. Worried about someone changing their mind? Establish a burden of proof, have an officer of the court present to insure that is what the person wants or other duly appointed witnesses.
It appears that you don't see the huge potential for abuse or coercion of giving someone else, in particular a government agent, the power to interpret that someone else has resolved to die, and the power to carry out that execution. And it appears you don't understand the guaranteed abuse of power by Jim Henshaw who wants to forbid anyone from seeking assisted suicide and force people against their will to live the remainder of their lives with a terminal disease in excruciating pain, even if that is what they want, because you don't feel any burden of proof can be met.
It appears that, in a country lurching toward government-rationed health care, with the inevitable pressures to contain costs, you don't consider this ceding of authority to government agents to be a tad bit disturbing and rife with unintended consequences. I can see how you feel this way if you presume someone else besides the individual is making the decision to end their life. But that is not a philosophically coherent argument. The argument you are putting forth is that there is no way to have a burden of proof be met that someone gives consent to a doctor to go ahead with the assisted suicide, but if we grant this argument then no burden of proof can be met on any decision a person makes. If I decide to buy a car, to you there is no burden of proof that can be met that I really wanted the car rather than the car dealership initiating force against me by stealing my money. On the contrary you want government interference into what is a personal choice even if no initiation of force took place. You want men with guns, to force someone against their will from seeking a physician assisted suicide.
Delegating the performance of a surgery, where the patient explicitly instructs the surgeon to make every effort to keep them alive, and where if the patient dies there is going to be a huge amount of scrutiny about why and how that death happened Just as there would be a huge amount of scrutiny to a a death as a result of surgery, so to would be the case for a physician assisted suicide. You presume in such a case there is a burden of proof that can be met by the doctor in the case of the risky surgery, but for some reason a burden of proof is not possible in the case of a physician assisted suicide. Why is this different conceptually?
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