Okay, I read your explanations, and all of that is fine, but I have severa other questions:
1) Since Surah 2:256 (the "no compulsion in religion"surah) is listed in the chart as having been "early AH", what if a Surah that is listed in the chart from "late AH" contradicts it, in terms of advocating butchery?
I mean, I understand that two different verses from let's say, Surah 2, can not be said to necessarily have been written at two different times, and are therefore not a support for abrogation. But let's say that Allah is flakey, and maybe is ambivalent while "writing" Surah 2, and gives contradictions there. If he then finally makes up "his" mind during the Late Medinan period and says in a later-written surah, "Okay, I've made up my mind... If it's not Muslim, terrorize the hell out of it". Couldn't that be a clear signal?
2) And by the way, your argument that talks about replacement, and where you say that then earlier verses -- if they were actually replaced -- would not even appear in the Qur'an any more, is not so compelling to me. Couldn't they have been left in, as a historical record?
3) And also, what are these Satanic Verses you're talking about? Are you simply referring to the Rushdie book? Or were these actual verses that were actually removed from the Qur'an? Are they still around? And if so, where can I find a translation of them?
4) Oh yeah, were they so horrible that that's why Khomeini issued the fatwa on Rushdie? If Rushdie's book just borrows the phrase, "Satanic Verses" and doesn't reprint them, what's the big deal?