| | Tibor,
Certainly, promises aren't contracts, under the law (though, morally, they are.) But if I restrict what you describe to legal contracts, I can say that I dispute, and claim that Objectivism disproves your assertion.
You wrote: If I promise payment to someone but it turns out my funds were stolen or are being stolen, so what I have promised to do I had no authority to promise, the promise becomes void. (post 13)
Accounting complications and changes in one's fortunes--for an individual or a company--do not change moral obligations, nor, properly, legal ones. I am puzzled here, and in your previous post that argued similarly about retroactive effects of a person's or a company's changing situation. What premise leads you to propose such effects? Every contract is forward-looking. People who enter into contracts are not ambushed by the fact that their expectations didn't work out. (That is one of the most important reasons why children aren't allowed to make contracts.) The fact that a contract represents a commitment in the face of unknowns is just one manifestation of the fact that life, being a process, is temporal. That we grasp this fact, and embrace it in our best efforts to live well, is a tribute to man. That man forms contracts is part of his glory.
If I understand you on this point, you would undo the aspect of contracts that they are binding. Which is to undo contracts altogether, logically. Contracts (or promises) we can forget about if things work out to present great difficulty for us in living up to them are not thereby voided. If that option were openly recognized, why in the world would anyone ever make either one?
Your formulation, in the quote above, that what you promised to do you had no authority to promise, applies to certain circumstances, but not in the ones to which you apply it. A con man may make a promise he has no authority to make, if he poses as someone else and the victim believes she is being promised something by the person who does have the authority to make such promises. That's convoluted, but, actually, familiar to us.
As you are using it, it seems that you are saying someone who actually had the authority to make a certain promise, then, when he loses the practical ability to fulfill it as he envisioned, loses, retroactively, the authority he actually did have when he made the promise. That seems entirely arbitrary, highly pragmatic, and, frankly, unscrupulous.
As to contracts's being cast in stone: We want them to be! If the constitution and judicial system protect individual rights, legally executed contracts can rely on our stony determination to uphold those rights, by upholding their terms (the terms of the contracts.)
I know of the issue of unconscionability, but I don't know how it is framed conceptually, nor how it is applied in cases of the day. Since we are talking about contracts that were legal in the first place, wouldn't that be a moot point?
Edit: This post is unedited. While I spent at least 20 minutes re-reading and editing it, occassionally doing a new "preview," the version that posted is the original, unedited one. I'll re-edit it another day.
Mindy
(Edited by Mindy Newton on 3/29, 12:35pm)
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