| | I don't know why I'm still debating this issue.
[Sigh]
At any rate, I wrote, "...an action is free if it [is] caused by the agent who performs it but is such that no antecedent conditions were sufficient for performing just that action. That's the definition that Nathaniel Branden uses in his book The Psychology of Self-Esteem."
Steve replied, I can't imagine Nathaniel saying that "[a]n Objectivist's choice to avoid religious worship is determined by his philosophical values and his non-belief in God", and meaning that the Objectivist couldn't choose to go into a church, or choose to become a Catholic (thus ceasing to be an Objectivist). Steve, I'm confused on the relevance of your comment as it pertains to the definition of a "free" action that I quoted in Branden's The Psychology of Self-Esteem. While I agree that that definition of "free" is one that Objectivism would endorse, I do not agree that we possess that kind of freedom. So I wasn't saying that Branden would agree with me on what determines a person's choices.
Furthermore, I'm not saying that an Objectivist can't change his mind and become a Catholic (although I would consider it extremely unlikely) or that, having done so, could then act in accordance with his religious beliefs by attending church to worship God. I'm saying that he can't choose to believe in God by a direct act of will -- that he can't choose to become a Catholic without first undergoing a value conversion.
Nor do I think that, contrary to the implications of your reply, Branden would disagree with me on this point. Recall his article in the January 1964 issue of The Objectivist Newsletter, in which he writes: Historically, the most common view of free will locates man's freedom in his choice of actions. [By "actions" in this context he means physical actions.] This is the view of Epicurus and of the modern Existentialists, for instance. According to this position, man is capable (at least, under certain circumstances) of choosing a particular course of action by direct free will; so that the choice, say, to go to the store for a loaf of bread or to join a political party, can be a causal primary, a "first cause" in consciousness.
The objections to this view are clearly overwhelming. When a man chooses to pursue a given course of action, the cause of his action is the mental operations that precede his choice; these mental operations express and are the result of his values, premises, knowledge and thinking -- whether he is fully aware of it or not....
In the Objectivist theory of volition, a man is responsible for his actions, not because his actions are directly subject to his free will, but because they proceed from his values and premises, which in turn proceed from his thinking or non-thinking. You continue: Every value is not a 'cause' by itself, it arises in a context rich with other values, and emotions and a background of feelings. True. Add to that short term versus long term which are both different frameworks for making decisions. We choose to focus, or not. Actually we choose how intently to focus and for how long. And then the thinking sorts the various values out in the context according to how we focus. True. Also, we aren't born with values, so they had to be formed/accepted/validated/integrated/prioritized/updated/etc and they are always open to change as time goes by. True, we aren't born with conceptual values, but we are born with the capacity to respond positively or negatively to external events. I think that Dr. Machan's makes an excellent point. If you are a determinist then words like "ought" and "should" carry no meaning in this context. I can say that a falling object like a rock "should" attain terminal velocity at such and such a point, but that isn't the same context. No one expects the rock to reexamine it's values and change speed so as to do what it "ought" to do. What about my example of a multiple-choice test, in which you have no reason to choose what you recognize as a wrong answer. In that case, you will necessarily choose what you recognize as the right answer. Yet, we can certainly say that you "ought" to choose that answer if you are to answer the question correctly, even though you could not have done otherwise under the circumstances.
I wrote, "One can say, quite validly, that a devout Catholic ought to be an atheist (if he is to think correctly), but that doesn't mean that at his present level of understanding he has any reason to choose a process of thought that results in that conclusion." The first part of this, which asserts that one ought to think correctly, implies that one has a choice in the matter - to think correctly or not. Not necessarily. I said, "ought to be an atheist," if he is to think correctly. He may at the time be unable to think correctly, because he is simply unaware of the fallacy in his position. I can recall, at the age of 9 concluding that God exists based on the first-cause argument. I ought not to have drawn that conclusion if I was to think correctly, but I could not at that time have avoided doing so, as I was simply blind to the fallacy in the argument. The second part asserts that it is unlikely that the devout Catholic will find themselves in a context where the amount of choosing that would be required to change such core values so completely as to become an atheist is going to occur. But we know that it does happen. Well, sure. I'm not saying that it couldn't. Remember, I said "at his present level of understanding." If he gains new knowledge and comes to realize the error in his thinking, then of course, he can change his mind and his beliefs. The fact that the Catholic can, through a series of purely internal choices, become an atheist, without any special outside effects, is the reason that "determinism" is not a valid word to use with human beings. So, would you say that at the age of 9, I could through a series of purely internal choices become an atheist without any special outside effects, i.e., without any new knowledge acquired externally from my environment?
(Edited by William Dwyer on 11/30, 1:44pm)
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