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Post 80

Wednesday, May 25, 2005 - 10:55pmSanction this postReply
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Hi Daniel,
Don't forget your instrument is *no different from your block or your rod*. All of them are physical objects, and thus subject to the same issues. But I don't want to focus too much on measurement in particular anyway, it has more or less crept in. What I'd rather emphasise from this example is the usually overlooked *non-physical* or *abstract* part of the process. This you can break down further into 1) the *conscious decision* to adopt a particular standard in the first place (or not to!) and 2) the formulation of that standard into an abstraction (ie putting it in words and numbers).
First, there is a difference between my perceptual-level units of measurement (blocks and rods) and a sophisticated instrument capable of measuring the distance light travels in a very short amount of time.

The difference is one of abstraction away from the perceptual level.  My perceptual-level instruments of measurement (blocks and rods) can be used to measure other perceptual-level measurements without appealing to another instrument or some kind of abstract standard.  Here, on the perceptual level, the standard is exactly the material unit I've chosen to measure with.  In this sense, we agree on your point (1)-- one must mentally isolate something with extension that makes a suitable measurement device and choose it in order to do any measuring on the perceptual level.

Recall how this material unit can be compared to other units: if one wants to make a copy of a unit (or subdivide it, even), one performs that process I mentioned in Post 61 to address just how one can measure how "negligible" one has been.

Now, one must use a similar kind of procedure to verify the construction of a micrometer-- somehow multiply the smallest precise unit capable by this instrument a multitude of times and judge by how many of these small units this deviates in length from the original perceptual-level unit (the method by which this is done will vary with the instrument).  Then the validity of the new units is established in terms of the validity of the old units.  Rand would say it in the following way: regardless of the units one chooses, one must always relate one's measurements to the perceptual level, or the measurement has no meaning.

With that out of the way, you bring up an interesting point-- we now measure length in terms of how fast light goes in some small fraction of time.  This appears to be a completely abstract, word-based definition with no material unit from which to base our measurement, which calls into question either the use of this standard or this particular defense of the validity of measurement that I give here.

My answer to this is: I don't know how scientists have gotten the precision to measure this finely (which is technical, special science knowledge), but they wouldn't have accepted this definition of the meter if there were no way to reduce the wavelength of light back down to the perceptual level, which means comparing it to a unit of measurement we already have.  You may now object-- but how do you know that the instrument itself is reporting the proper length?  The answer lies in calibration-- you verify the precision of your instruments through (a) reference to the perceptual level, as I outlined above, or (b) by reference to an already so calibrated instrument.  In this sense, (2) is a standard of measurement which is valid only if one has instruments which are capable of validly measuring the actions of the entities involved as in the sense above.

Although I would still like to know more about this process by which a length is measured in terms of light-- I tried Wikipedia, but it wasn't helpful.

Nate T.


Post 81

Wednesday, May 25, 2005 - 11:41pmSanction this postReply
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Daniel, no worries.

What I meant by DECISIVELY was the absence of overlap between the error margin of the object to be measured--and the error margins of the upper and lower bounds.

Context will dictate appropriate bounding (aka: the appropriate precision for intellectual gain). But this absence of overlap that I mentioned, is what gives rise to the phenomenon we refer to as accuracy.

A simplified example:
It is 100% accurate (though not precise enough for much intellectual gain) to say that the size of an average baseball is decisively between the size of an average golf ball and the size of an average bowling ball.

Ed

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Post 82

Wednesday, May 25, 2005 - 11:46pmSanction this postReply
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Nate T.
Although I would still like to know more about this process by which a length is measured in terms of light-- I tried Wikipedia, but it wasn't helpful.
The primary standard is a cesium-controlled oscillator hooked to a counter, running about 9 thousand million cesium atom oscillations per second.

The distance light travels in that second is determined, in one method, by laser interferometry coupled with molecular state transition detection, I believe. There are others, I'm sure.

If you do a web Google on [nist measurement standard] you should come up with something. Wikipedia should have something on interferometry, though that would only be part of the modern picture.

Nathan Hawking

 


Post 83

Thursday, May 26, 2005 - 11:16amSanction this postReply
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Nathan wrote:

-------------------
The primary standard is a cesium-controlled oscillator hooked to a counter, running about 9 thousand million cesium atom oscillations per second.

The distance light travels in that second is determined, in one method, by laser interferometry coupled with molecular state transition detection, I believe.
-------------------

Well that clears it up for me then--thanks!

Holy crap, Nathan, was THAT ever over my head! Now please tell me: is it Nathan, son of Stephen??

Ed

Post 84

Thursday, May 26, 2005 - 1:24pmSanction this postReply
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Ed:
Well that clears it up for me then--thanks!

Holy crap, Nathan, was THAT ever over my head!
Sorry. I did some electronics in a former life. Just wanted to point Nate in the right direction, not write a paper.
Now please tell me: is it Nathan, son of Stephen??
No relation, but that's the first time I've been asked that.

Today.

LOL

Nathan



Post 85

Friday, May 27, 2005 - 1:55amSanction this postReply
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Nate writes:
>With that out of the way, you bring up an interesting point-- we now measure length in terms of how fast light goes in some small fraction of time.  This appears to be a completely abstract, word-based definition with no material unit from which to base our measurement, which calls into question either the use of this standard or this particular defense of the validity of measurement that I give here.

I don't think there is any difference in principle between the light ray metre and the Nate Block-standard metre. One is not more abstract than the other. Both are physical objects; everything I have said applies. Both are approximates - we do not know to the nth degree their duration or their actual physical length other than by a range, which is itself approximated. Nor is there a difference in principle between the "perceptual" level of your sight and the readings of a micrometer. After all, your *eye* is a physical object too, calibrated by evolution to respond to a certain range of electromagnetic wavelengths with varying levels of precision. That's why even your "perceptual level" block *is still *just an approximation*. And thats why you need a device like a ruler, or micrometer in the first place - *to improve your eye's approximate guess as to its length*.

The abstractions are when we 1) consciously decide to adopt it and 2) systematise it into a formula (1/2 a Nate Block, 3 Nate Blocks, 87 Nate Blocks equals one Ed Rod etc).

- Daniel

Post 86

Friday, May 27, 2005 - 4:55pmSanction this postReply
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Hi Daniel,

Sorry for the late reply-- I've been busy the last few days defending a thesis and scraping up what's left of my paper.
I don't think there is any difference in principle between the light ray metre and the Nate Block-standard metre.  One is not more abstract than the other.  Both are physical objects; everything I have said applies.
I think I see-- naively, it would appear that there are abstract standards (light/time) and material standards (blocks/rods) of measurement.  I agree with you that this distinction is essentially false.  However, where we differ is that you state that all measurements are measured in terms of abstract units which can only be approximated by material objects, and I have stated that they must ultimately be reduced by material means to some material unit at the perceptual unit.  Do I have you right?
Both are approximates - we do not know to the nth degree their duration or their actual physical length other than by a range, which is itself approximated.
When did I ever say that the range was approximate?  I think Ed may have conceded that somewhere above, but I have not.  As I'm sure you're aware, the range of a valid measurement cannot be approximate, or we would have to approximate that approximation, and the one after that, etc., resulting in a pointless infinite regress which tells us nothing.  The measurement-as-counting is where this regression of approximation stops.

As far as approximating the distance light travels in one-three-hundred-millionth of a second, I'd talk to Nathan H., since he seems to know something about it.
Nor is there a difference in principle between the "perceptual" level of your sight and the readings of a micrometer. After all, your *eye* is a physical object too, calibrated by evolution to respond to a certain range of electromagnetic wavelengths with varying levels of precision.  That's why even your "perceptual level" block *is still *just an approximation*.

Well, this is kind of the point-- your eyes are no exception to the Law of Identity.  They are instruments of measurement too, and they therefore have their limitations (limitations we can describe in terms of other units of measurement).  However, the lack of infinite precision of the senses does not invalidate them, as the lack of perfect precision does not invalidate any good instrument. In fact, this "perfect precision" is impossible.

At this point, I'd ask you to define "approximate"-- however, as you made clear in the first epistemology thread, I can't be assured that you'll give a definition.  Therefore, let me just state that the term "approximate" means nothing without giving bounds of approximation, that is, a level of precision.  As an analysis professor of mine said while learning about Taylor series, anything can be "approximately" anything else you want with a gross enough context.
And thats why you need a device like a ruler, or micrometer in the first place - *to improve your eye's approximate guess as to its length*.
Yes, that's right, and is a very important point.  We cannot perceive every possible kind of measurement from the start.  If we could, we wouldn't need special instruments to gauge microscopic distances (or astronomical ones, for that matter).  However, we can't immediately see the relationship between everyday objects and galaxies or atoms, and so we need these instruments to give us this relationship.
The abstractions are when we 1) consciously decide to adopt it and 2) systematise it into a formula (1/2 a Nate Block, 3 Nate Blocks, 87 Nate Blocks equals one Ed Rod etc).
So if I can summarize this: one chooses a suitable unit and regards it as such (epistemological).  Then, the units bear some relationship in reality (metaphysical) which one recognizes (epistemological)?

Also, I'm not sure how it helps to give an abstract definition of a Nate block in terms of an Ed rod, since merely stipulating a relationship gives no way to measure on the smaller scale.  Just as given a small unit, one must verify to some context the relationship to a larger unit, one must actually somehow construct a unit the size of a Nate block or construct an instrument precise enough to measure in terms of them if your measurement is going to have any significance that the larger unit does not.  An abstract definition is useless without some kind of measuring device with precision at least as fine as that unit.


Nate T.

(Edited by Nate T. on 5/27, 5:28pm)


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Post 87

Friday, May 27, 2005 - 5:16pmSanction this postReply
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Hi Brendan,
Where we differ is most likely in our view of concepts. If you believe that the meaning of a concept is its referents, you’re going to have difficulty in arguing for precision in measurement, since you won’t find precise measurements in material objects. But if you believe that the meaning of a concept is found in its definition, you can accept lack of precision in material objects, while still claiming that abstract measurement can be precise.
Well, in one sense, the meaning of a standard of unit is in its definition, since those standards are man-made, whether it be just a particularly straight stick you found on the ground, or the abstract formula you've quoted for the length of a meter in terms of light and time.

However, once you've chosen that standard, you can immediately begin finding referents for the concept, which are as long as your unit (up to some context).  It's not up to your consciousness to determine how long things are relative to some unit once you've fixed a unit-- that relationship exists in reality independently of one's consciousness-- and in that sense the concept that arises (say, "centimeter") has referents in the world (say, the length of meterstick between two tics) which are metaphysically determined.

If you're interested, this is the distinction between the metaphysical and the man-made discussed by Peikoff in his paper "The Analytic/Synthetic Dichotomy."

To turn the tables somewhat-- how would you answer your own charge, supposing the only standards of measurement are abstract?  After all, having an abstract unit is all well and good, but if all copies of it are imperfect, how can any measurements you make have validity?

Nate T.



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Post 88

Saturday, May 28, 2005 - 8:46pmSanction this postReply
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Nate: “Well, in one sense, the meaning of a standard of unit is in its definition, since those standards are man-made, whether it be just a particularly straight stick you found on the ground, or the abstract formula you've quoted for the length of a meter in terms of light and time.”

Nate, you keep confusing the material and the abstract. A stick is a material object, the formula is an abstraction. We’ve been talking about precision in measurement. I have been arguing that as far as material objects are concerned, measurement is imprecise. In using a material object as a standard, you are opting for imprecision from the get-go, since material objects are imprecise in measurement. On the other hand, the abstract formula is a precise standard.

“It's not up to your consciousness to determine how long things are relative to some unit once you've fixed a unit-- that relationship exists in reality independently of one's consciousness…”

But if the unit is an abstraction, only consciousness can determine the relationship between the unit and reality. If you’re arguing that the unit is a material object, you’re stuck with imprecision again.

“After all, having an abstract unit is all well and good, but if all copies of it are imperfect, how can any measurements you make have validity?”

The proof is in the pudding. If the standard does the job we ask it to do, then it’s a valid standard. If you want to build a house, use one standard, if you want to fly to Jupiter, you use a more precise standard.

Brendan


Post 89

Sunday, May 29, 2005 - 9:49amSanction this postReply
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Brendan,

I have been arguing that as far as material objects are concerned, measurement is imprecise.

With respect to what?

In using a material object as a standard, you are opting for imprecision from the get-go, since material objects are imprecise in measurement. On the other hand, the abstract formula is a precise standard.

"Imprecise" material units may be, but with material units one can in reality specify a relationship in length, albeit one with limited precision, as I've mentioned before.  Suppose one has the abstract idea of a meter in one's head, but no instruments.  Will you be able to measure the height of a skyscraper in meters?

But if the unit is an abstraction, only consciousness can determine the relationship between the unit and reality. If you’re arguing that the unit is a material object, you’re stuck with imprecision again.

See the above-- if one could merely compare an idealized meter to some object to determine it's length in meters, we wouldn't need to measure: we could just automatically obtain relationships by immediate perception.

Let's be perfectly clear-- consciousness comes into the picture by recognizing the relationship between material objects.  However, no amount of wishing will change that relationship, because it exists in reality as a material relationship.  And yes, it may be quite messy and imprecise-- but the important thing is you can always tell how imprecise it is.

The proof is in the pudding. If the standard does the job we ask it to do, then it’s a valid standard. If you want to build a house, use one standard, if you want to fly to Jupiter, you use a more precise standard.

So you're saying that a measurement is valid if it works?  How can we tell if it works-- is it if the frame of the house is square?  Suppose one makes a mistake in one's measurement-- is this the fault of the measurer or the standard?  Is there any way to know, if one's standard is purely abstract?

Nate T.



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Post 90

Sunday, May 29, 2005 - 7:05pmSanction this postReply
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Nate: “With respect to what [is the measurement of material objects imprecise]?

With the respect to the standard.

“Let's be perfectly clear-- consciousness comes into the picture by recognizing the relationship between material objects…And yes, it may be quite messy and imprecise…”

At last! Thanks Nate. It’s been a long hard slog, but you’ve finally come to agree that the measurement of material objects is imprecise. If so, then it cannot be “absolutely precise”, and that is the whole point of this discussion.

“So you're saying that a measurement is valid if it works?  How can we tell if it works-- is it if the frame of the house is square?”

No. If it “works” means: does it perform the function for which it is intended? If the house stands up, the measurement is valid, because it “works”. You’re still confusing the material with the abstract. “Square” is also an abstraction. You’re asking whether the empirical test – how it “works” – should be measured against the abstract standard.

But that’s got it back to front. Ultimately, the abstract standard is judged against the empirical outcome – the outcome is not judged by how well it conforms to the standard, but by how well it performs its function. Sure, the skilled craftsman will try to ensure that his measurements are as close as possible to the standard, via his instruments, but the ultimate end is a structurally sound house, not one that is “perfectly square”.

“Suppose one makes a mistake in one's measurement-- is this the fault of the measurer or the standard?  Is there any way to know, if one's standard is purely abstract?”

Since the standard is precise, if there’s a mistake in measurement, it’s the fault of the measurer and/or his instruments. A mistake occurs when the measurer is careless in the use of his instruments, but if he is a careful craftsman, the imprecision will be a feature, not a mistake.

Brendan


Post 91

Sunday, May 29, 2005 - 9:07pmSanction this postReply
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Brendan,
With the respect to the standard.

And by what mystical process are you going to compare the idea of the perefect meter to an iron rod, exactly?  I've addressed this already-- you cannot use an abstract idea alone to measure things.  Ultimately, you must measure in terms of instruments.

At last! Thanks Nate. It’s been a long hard slog, but you’ve finally come to agree that the measurement of material objects is imprecise. If so, then it cannot be “absolutely precise”, and that is the whole point of this discussion.

I don't appreciate your condescension.  I've already admitted several times that Rand's choice of the term "absolutely precise" is inappropriate for the context.  However, had she replaced that term with the term "precise," I would have had no problems with her statement.

 

To make it perfectly plain: the type of measurement Rand describes is the only valid type of quantifiable linear measurement possible to man.  This is how it's done-- if you think this is false, I'd like to hear another way that does not ultimately depend on the way I've given.

 

I can define a unit of length, the 'Nate-Brendan standard', say, which is equal to exactly one millionth of the distance between the tip of your nose to the tip of mine as of midnight tonight.  Would there be a point in making such a definition?  If not, why not?

 

No amount of appealing to abstract units will ever suffice to measure anything-- you have to roll up your sleeves and go out and invent a measuring instrument with a precision as I've described above and go measure something.  You can invent just as many abstract units as you please, but if it doesn't correspond to something material in reality, it is useless.

No. If it “works” means: does it perform the function for which it is intended? If the house stands up, the measurement is valid, because it “works”.

Ah, I see.  Suppose a probe intended to land in Mars functions perfectly except for the fact that it misses the planet entirely.  Tell me, were the measurements involved in constructing and sending the probe invalid, or was it the fault of the engineers and physicists who constructed the probe in the first place?

You’re still confusing the material with the abstract. “Square” is also an abstraction. You’re asking whether the empirical test – how it “works” – should be measured against the abstract standard.

Yes, I'm asking whether such a test is possible.  If it's not, you've very nicely divided all human measurements along the Analytic/Synthetic lines-- perfect and useless abstract measurements on one hand, practical, unknowably imprecise measurements on the other.

 

No Brendan, it is you who is confusing the abstract and the material.  You claim to be able to measure a length of string by invoking the abstract idea of a meter defined in terms of light waves, while carefully leaving out the details of the huge advancements of science and technology necessary to actually measure light waves precisely enough to make a definition possible, and ignoring the work of all of those scientists who made such instruments possible.  It is only by their work that we are actually able to measure on par with light waves and give a definition of the meter based upon light.

 

You cannot compare incommensurables.  No relationship between an abstract standard and a material object is possible, because abstract standards do not themselves have extension.  An abstract standard is essentially a recipe which allows one to make material standards within some known precision, but one needs instruments to do it.

But that’s got it back to front. Ultimately, the abstract standard is judged against the empirical outcome – the outcome is not judged by how well it conforms to the standard, but by how well it performs its function.

What if the precision you've chosen for your job doesn't suffice tomorrow?  What if, in constructing a ruler, one suffices to build bicycles and one does not?  Are the makers of sqaure rulers expected to build a house with every individual square ruler they make to be sure it's precise?

Sure, the skilled craftsman will try to ensure that his measurements are as close as possible to the standard, via his instruments, but the ultimate end is a structurally sound house, not one that is “perfectly square”.

I'd like to know how exactly the craftsman (or more directly, the designer of the ruler) knows how close it is to this abstract standard.

What's more, you should by now know better than to characterize my position as claiming that something is "perfectly square."  The measurement of angles is another type of measurement, and by trigonometry is subject to the same limitations and errors as I've described for length.

Oh, that we could build houses out of ideas instead of wood.  Alas, this is not how reality works.

Since the standard is precise, if there’s a mistake in measurement, it’s the fault of the measurer and/or his instruments.

How do you know?  You certainly can't directly compare the abstract standard to the thing being measured, can you?  Couldn't it just as easily be a flaw in the process of measurement itself?

A mistake occurs when the measurer is careless in the use of his instruments, but if he is a careful craftsman, the imprecision will be a feature, not a mistake.

Oh, a feature?  So .. are you now admitting that one can control the error involved in measuring?  If so, how?  I'd certainly like to know how you can control an inherently unknowable error.

If you can't tell, I'm beginning to lose patience here.  If your goal in discussing the measurement problem is to further your knowledge of it, fine; that's my purpose too.  But if your purpose is to score points in a debate (as your above gloating suggests), you ought to know better than to waste your time, and had ought to come clean and stop wasting mine.

 

Nate T.


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Post 92

Monday, May 30, 2005 - 4:19pmSanction this postReply
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Nate T:
>I think I see-- naively, it would appear that there are abstract standards (light/time) and material standards (blocks/rods) of measurement. I agree with you that this distinction is essentially false.

Whoa, then I haven't made my point very well at all! I think this distinction is essentially *true*. Abstract standards exist - I don't believe it is naiive to suggest this - but Plato has muddied the waters for us all, so it makes it harder to see. Popper's conjecture is that they are the abstract, objective byproduct of our abstract subjective consciousness interacting with the physical world. In turn, we interact with this byproduct "World 3" object, *which influences how we think*, and then reinfluences the physical world.

Perhaps it would be better if I put it in the form of an imaginative example.

Imagine Stoneage Nate decides to adopt this piece of wood as a way of helping solve the practical problem of building a crude wall. This is a *subjective* decision - it could be any one different rough blocks - but is of course not *random*. But what if he wants his neighbours to help build it? Obviously it would be entirely useless if each of his neighbours used her own subjective standard of measurement. So, after discussion, everyone agrees (as you say, a "convention") that the block becomes a standard measurement. Now as well as Nate's subjective standard, it is now an *objective* standard that exists independently of him. Further, Stoneage Ed cleverly notices that Nate's block has uses Nate did not think of - it can be roughly marked to indicate smaller lengths. Primitive Brian notices that they can also be copied and laid end to end to make larger units.

As a result, the tribe's walls become better, and thus it survives better. And eventually Nate's original block rots away, but by now it is approximated by a piece of stone, which will last longer. The markings from Nate's block have been painstakingly reproduced - in fact, due to better tools, and the growing importance of Nate's block to the tribe, much effort has been put into making even divisions far clearer and more regularly spaced than on the original. It is not exact - they have not been able to get the halfpoint *exactly* in half of the stone - but it is better than it was. Equally puzzlingly, it seems they could keep marking it into ever smaller pieces if they had sharp enough tools - more pieces than any of them could ever think of! And they dimly realise that you could in principle, make ever larger units, without end.

But then tragedy strikes. A plague hits the village and kills everyone in it. Some years pass. Animals enter the ruin. They pass by Nate's Stone (as it became known) but the markings on it mean nothing to them. Finally, another tribe come across the village. One of the more observant ones notices this strangely marked stone. After some discussion, they begin to realise what it *means*, *what the markings symbolise* - saving them years of trial and error innovation themselves. They take it back to their village, where it forms the basis of their system, new variations are added, etc. and their walls, houses, wells etc *are formed on the basis of it*

So we have a 3 way interactive system. The objective W3 first emerges as the byproduct of a single subjective consciousness interacting with the physical world. Once *objectively expressed* - in a piece of wood, or in markings on it, or on a piece of stone - other minds can use it for their own individual subjective purposes, even if they are *entirely separated from the original inventors*, and those inventors have been eliminated. Further, these are no mere marks on a piece of stone - these have *meaning* and this abstract meaning can be *interpreted*. Thus they are more than just their physical existence. Further, while we can use them, they have unexpected qualities (number, precision, extension) that transcend what is physically possible - they are "superhuman" in this sense, despite the fact we have originated them. Thus they are more than just *figments of our individual consciousness*. Finally, human decisions *shape* and *are shaped* by them, and subsequently feedback to *shape the physical world W1* (anyone who has flown over natural forest and seen it abruptly change in to cultivated land will immediately be stuck by this). This discovery of objective abstractions has given us an evolutionary advantage that places us far ahead of other animals.

This is what I mean when I say *I believe abstract standards exist*.

>When did I ever say that the range was approximate? I think Ed may have conceded that somewhere above, but I have not.

OK. Can you then show why if, say, 2mm can only be approximated between the range of 1mm and 3mm, *why these two defining points on the range are not similar approximations*?

Same with 1.5mm between 1.4 and 1.6mm, or any measure at or between any scale you like.

regards
Daniel


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Post 93

Monday, May 30, 2005 - 9:14pmSanction this postReply
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Hi Daniel,
Perhaps it would be better if I put it in the form of an imaginative example.
Heh, I do enjoy your allegories, Daniel.  *cracks knuckles*
Imagine Stoneage Nate decides to adopt this piece of wood as a way of helping solve the practical problem of building a crude wall. This is a *subjective* decision - it could be any one different rough blocks - but is of course not *random*. But what if he wants his neighbours to help build it? Obviously it would be entirely useless if each of his neighbours used her own subjective standard of measurement. So, after discussion, everyone agrees (as you say, a "convention") that the block becomes a standard measurement. Now as well as Nate's subjective standard, it is now an *objective* standard that exists independently of him.
Yep.  The various cavemen have reasoned correctly here.  However, the piece of wood that my counterpart chose is perfectly objective in its own right-- it has a specific length that can be used to measure the lengths of other things, but no more precisely than the length of the piece of wood itself.  You're right that his original choice was somewhat arbitrary (in that there may be many suitable pieces of wood for the job lying around the Primeval Forest), but once a piece of wood was chosen, it was perfectly objective measure even when he knew about it alone.

The fact that his neighbors now accept it as a standard does not make it more objective-- and the fact that you would equate universal acceptance and truth is illuminating, to say the least.

Further, Stoneage Ed cleverly notices that Nate's block has uses Nate did not think of - it can be roughly marked to indicate smaller lengths. Primitive Brian notices that they can also be copied and laid end to end to make larger units.
As a result, the tribe's walls become better, and thus it survives better. And eventually Nate's original block rots away, but by now it is approximated by a piece of stone, which will last longer. The markings from Nate's block have been painstakingly reproduced - in fact, due to better tools, and the growing importance of Nate's block to the tribe, much effort has been put into making even divisions far clearer and more regularly spaced than on the original. It is not exact - they have not been able to get the halfpoint *exactly* in half of the stone - but it is better than it was.
By what standard?  If these cavemen are just eyeing the markings into above equal pieces, they aren't constructing their instruments correctly.
Equally puzzlingly, it seems they could keep marking it into ever smaller pieces if they had sharp enough tools - more pieces than any of them could ever think of! And they dimly realise that you could in principle, make ever larger units, without end.
That's right, although I don't know why it's puzzling.  They just have to make sure that they can relate their new fantastic units in terms of their old one if they are to retain any real meaning.
But then tragedy strikes. A plague hits the village and kills everyone in it. Some years pass. Animals enter the ruin. They pass by Nate's Stone (as it became known) but the markings on it mean nothing to them. Finally, another tribe come across the village. One of the more observant ones notices this strangely marked stone. After some discussion, they begin to realise what it *means*, *what the markings symbolise* - saving them years of trial and error innovation themselves.
Oh.  I was beginning to root for the old tribe-- they were doing so well. :-P
In any case, I bet the members of the new tribe don't look at the marks and immediately think "oh, they must have built the walls with this object."  They first recognize a regularity, a pattern, namely, that they appear to be equally spaced, so far as they can tell.  After that recognition do they reason that they could measure things with it (if they even think to do that).
They take it back to their village, where it forms the basis of their system, new variations are added, etc. and their walls, houses, wells etc *are formed on the basis of it*
And they just do this on faith!?  What if there are slight irregularities in the construction of this mysterious instrument?  What if it caused the plague that wiped out the village? ;-)  I would think they'd want to check in a similar manner whether this is in fact a good standard of measurement.
So we have a 3 way interactive system. The objective W3 first emerges as the byproduct of a single subjective consciousness interacting with the physical world. Once *objectively expressed* - in a piece of wood, or in markings on it, or on a piece of stone - other minds can use it for their own individual subjective purposes, even if they are *entirely separated from the original inventors*, and those inventors have been eliminated. Further, these are no mere marks on a piece of stone - these have *meaning* and this abstract meaning can be *interpreted*. 
I'm afraid I don't understand your terminology.  You're using subjective in the phrase "subjective consciousness" in the sense of the personal here?  Seems to me that the block (and hence the length of the block) could care less about your subjective consciousness interacting with it by choosing it as a standard of measure.  However, so long as it can be so used, there's no problem with using it in that way.

After all, if your standard is a good one, and you're a competent measurer, any two people performing the same measurement with the same unit ought to get the same answer.

And I don't at all see how the realization that something can be used as an instrument means that the units in which the instrument is calibrated suddenly leaps from the instrument and takes it's rightful place in Plato's heaven.  It's possible that the measurement is fine in this context and is terrible in another.

For example, a foot long wooden rod with jagged edges cannot be divided well into a trillion pieces, for instance.  You need another, new kind of unit (light waves, for instance, apparently suffice) which reduces to the old unit to some predetermined relative accuracy, and then choose the new, more precise unit to be a better rendition of the old standard, as close as makes sense in the old context.


Thus they are more than just their physical existence.
In what sense?  It has some significance other than a random heap of leaves?  Of course.  It's a material unit designed by humans to measure.
Further, while we can use them, they have unexpected qualities (number, precision, extension) that transcend what is physically possible - they are "superhuman" in this sense, despite the fact we have originated them.
Hold on here-- didn't our original friendly cavemen design these instruments?  That seems pretty physically possible to me, since they did in fact design it with material objects.  This reminds me of the old idea of nineteenth century scientists being mystified by a computer were they to see one.  Just because Nate's Stone is beyond the technological capabilities of the new tribe doesn't mean it's magical-- it's just out of the new tribes' ability to replicate (or verify).
Thus they are more than just *figments of our individual consciousness*.
They are more-- they exist as material units in reality.  if they didn't, they'd be totally useless as means to measure material things.
Finally, human decisions *shape* and *are shaped* by them, and subsequently feedback to *shape the physical world W1* (anyone who has flown over natural forest and seen it abruptly change in to cultivated land will immediately be stuck by this). This discovery of objective abstractions has given us an evolutionary advantage that places us far ahead of other animals.
I'd agree and say more generally that humans do this in all of their activities, and must do so to survive.
This is what I mean when I say *I believe abstract standards exist*.
... could you summarize for me again?  It seems like you've cleft metaphysics into three parts: W1, which roughly corresponds to Kant's noumenal realm, W2, which roughly corresponds to Kant's phenomenal realm, and this new W3, which is somewhere in between, and contains these abstract standards.
From an Occam's razor standpoint, what does this new realm explain that the other two don't?  If I were to guess, I'd say that this W3 is just the place you're putting universal concepts, and everything else we deal with mentally stays in W2.  Why do this?
OK. Can you then show why if, say, 2mm can only be approximated between the range of 1mm and 3mm, *why these two defining points on the range are not similar approximations*?
What do you mean, "can only be approximated between?"  When you're measuring with a millimeter length, you're counting units lined up end to end, as I've mentioned before.  If you're referring to things like the ruler slipping or not lining up evenly enough, that is absorbed into the end unit error as being negligible.  If it becomes appreciable, you're using the wrong means of measuring.

Nate T.


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Post 94

Monday, May 30, 2005 - 10:47pmSanction this postReply
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Nate T:
>Heh, I do enjoy your allegories, Daniel. *cracks knuckles*

We aim to please!

>I'm afraid I don't understand your terminology. You're using subjective in the phrase "subjective consciousness" in the sense of the personal here?

Of course. As usual my terminology is not obscure.

From the ever useful Dictionary.com:
sub-jec-tive adj.
1.Proceeding from or taking place in a person's mind rather than the external world: a subjective decision.

And while we're here:

ob·jec·tive adj.
1.Of or having to do with a material object.
2. Having actual existence or reality.

Additionally I also mean objective as simply *the opposite of subjective* - that is, outside of oneself. (The latin root is "objectum", something that blocks your path). Obviously "World 1", the physical world, is objective in both this sense and 1.

"World 3" - I call it a "world" for want of a better word - is also objective in this sense and also 2., in that it actually exists (it is not an illusion), but only in abstract. It is not material or physical (though it depends upon physical objects to be encoded)

>...could you summarize for me again? It seems like you've cleft metaphysics into three parts: W1, which roughly corresponds to Kant's noumenal realm, W2, which roughly corresponds to Kant's phenomenal realm, and this new W3, which is somewhere in between, and contains these abstract standards.

If you thought dualism was bad, welcome to *trialism*! I would say W1 corresponds to the commonsense view of reality. W2 corresponds simply to that vague notion known as "consciousness". W3 is roughly like Plato's forms, but very different in that *we* produce them and interact with them. It is the realm of *objective knowledge* - knowledge that is first produced by but then does not require a subjective "knower" to exist. You guess correctly below. It's the place where things like mathematical systems (like measurement), theories (right and wrong), logical (and illogical) arguments, problems, rules, music, literature, etc. It's the place people are talking about when they say "Shakespeare says" in the present tense...;-)

>From an Occam's razor standpoint, what does this new realm explain that the other two don't? If I were to guess, I'd say that this W3 is just the place you're putting universal concepts, and everything else we deal with mentally stays in W2. Why do this?

W1: Objective/physical
W2: Subjective/nonphysical or abstract
W3: Objective/nonphysical or abstract

Several reasons. In no particular order:
We assume W1 to avoid a subjectivist ontology. "Reality exists" as you might say...;-)

W2 is non physical to avoid physicalism/determinism. It is also subjective because the idea of 'objective consciousness' is obviously a contradiction in terms (unless you are a Hegelian, in which case too bad for you!). We must be careful not to fix all ideas "in the mind" *exclusively*(see W3 later). Otherwise human knowledge becomes exclusively subjectivist - the activity of an inner mental state.

We must not *deny* subjective consciousness however - otherwise we risk losing human freedom to do as *we* choose, to be *ends in ourselves*, to have reasons and feelings inside ourselves that no-one else can ever know. In fact, it is our individual subjective viewpoints that allow us to be creative, to see the world in different ways.

However, creative as it is, subjectivity is bound to be unreliable as a guide, just as it is for the blind men feeling the elephant. So we require *objective knowledge*, or W3 - a way of making our thoughts and experiences available *intersubjectively*, so others can learn from them. In doing this we have, unintentionally, created an abstract "world" which in many ways exceeds us. It contains numbers no human has ever thought of, circles that no human can ever draw, problems that no-one has noticed yet, not even the original thinkers. It has some contents which are *external to any thinker that will ever live*. (It was these qualities that so impressed Plato he placed them at the beginning of all things). This indicates that while we produce it, and interact with it, it exists *objectively* from us.

Of course, you can shoehorn all these things into two or even one world if you want. But you'll find by the time you cover off all those issues, it starts to be a pretty uncomfortable fit. Hence Popper's provocative conjecture. After all while one should be intellectually parsimonious, there is also such a thing as a false economy!

- Daniel




Post 95

Tuesday, May 31, 2005 - 2:57pmSanction this postReply
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Nate: “I don't appreciate your condescension.  I've already admitted several times that Rand's choice of the term "absolutely precise" is inappropriate for the context.  However, had she replaced that term with the term "precise," I would have had no problems with her statement.”

I don’t think I was being condescending, merely appreciating your comments that the relationship between objects can be “messy and imprecise”, hence any measurement will be likewise.

“You cannot compare incommensurables.  No relationship between an abstract standard and a material object is possible, because abstract standards do not themselves have extension.”

The concept “chair” is an abstraction. Are you saying this concept has no relation to real chairs? If it were impossible to relate abstractions and material objects, we would find it impossible to navigate our way around the world.

I think the question you’re asking here involves interactionism: what is the relationship between mental events and physical events? That’s a whole different other subject., and not for this thread. But briefly, take the example of a burn causing pain.

We can explain a burn by appealing to the relevant physical laws of the effect of heat on the skin, how this produces electrical impulse in nerves, which then travel to the brain, causing patterns of brain waves and so on.

But none of this is sufficient to explain the experience: “feeling the pain of a burn”. To do that we have to use a different type of explanation, the language of mental events – “It hurts bad, feels like fire etc”. But the different explanation doesn’t negate a connection between the two events. 

Brendan


Post 96

Tuesday, May 31, 2005 - 3:38pmSanction this postReply
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Hi Daniel,

Thanks for your brief exposition of Popper's metaphysics-- it helps a lot to know where you're coming from.

Anyhow, to address your post, I asked:
(Nate) From an Occam's razor standpoint, what does this new realm explain that the other two don't? If I were to guess, I'd say that this W3 is just the place you're putting universal concepts, and everything else we deal with mentally stays in W2. Why do this?
You responded:
W1: Objective/physical
W2: Subjective/nonphysical or abstract
W3: Objective/nonphysical or abstract

Several reasons. In no particular order:
We assume W1 to avoid a subjectivist ontology. "Reality exists" as you might say...;-)
No argument here.  Indeed, no argument against that is possible.
W2 is non physical to avoid physicalism/determinism. It is also subjective because the idea of 'objective consciousness' is obviously a contradiction in terms (unless you are a Hegelian, in which case too bad for you!). We must be careful not to fix all ideas "in the mind" *exclusively*(see W3 later). Otherwise human knowledge becomes exclusively subjectivist - the activity of an inner mental state.
Hmm, this is puzzling.  I suppose if you want to define "objective" as "outside one's consciousness" as you seem to be doing, then it's clear that your consciousness is "subjective", which you're defining as "not objective" in the aforementioned sense.

And it's not just Hegelians that considers the terminology "objective consciousness" to be valid.  Rand defines objective not just as "outside one's consciousness," but "corresponding to an external reality."  It is in this sense that Rand talks about "objective reasoning" or "objective mesurement" being done by one person (and it is in this sense that she named her philosophy).  However, these, too, would be contradictory looking through a Popperian lens.

So I suppose my follow-up question becomes: does "subjective" in the sense of not external imply "subjective" in the sense of being cut off from reality in some way?  If so, why?
We must not *deny* subjective consciousness however - otherwise we risk losing human freedom to do as *we* choose, to be *ends in ourselves*, to have reasons and feelings inside ourselves that no-one else can ever know.
Well,  it would be self-contradictory to deny with our consciousness' the fact that we have consciousness' at all.  Even Descartes would agree with this.

Also, I'm not sure that it's philosophically impossible to read someone's thoughts, so to speak-- it would be impossible to predict someone's actions to an arbitrary precision, since volition is axiomatic, but I don't know of any philosophical reason why discovering through externals means someone's inner secrets might not be made possible eventually by some scientific breakthrough (athough doing such a thing is impossible today, thank goodness).
In fact, it is our individual subjective viewpoints that allow us to be creative, to see the world in different ways.
If you're using "subjective" here in the sense of personal, then yes, I agree.  Different experiences can lead to different ideas and concepts, which may put a new spin on an old problem or create a new connection that no one else had thought of.
However, creative as it is, subjectivity is bound to be unreliable as a guide, just as it is for the blind men feeling the elephant.
Here's where we diverge.  This "blind man feeling the elephant" is really just an allegory which describes Platonism-- it postualtes an ideal Truth (the elephant) of which we (the blind people) can only imperfectly understand or realize (feel) parts (head, tail, trunk, etc.).  I see no reason why not being omniscient would make the observations we do make correct in their context.

Or, to phrase it in terms of the allegory, I see no reason why the blind men can't understand all of the non-visual properties of the elephant that a seeing person could eventually.  The whole source of humor in that allegory is that each of the blind men perceives a different part of the elephant and concludes that the entire elephant must have the same properties.  This is an unwarranted conclusion on their part.
So we require *objective knowledge*, or W3 - a way of making our thoughts and experiences available *intersubjectively*, so others can learn from them.
Why is one's personal experience inheretly unknowable to others?  Are you saying that one needs concepts and language to describe one's experiences to others?

Stated in the Rand sense, "objective knowledge" is the only knowlege worth having.  However, given your definitions above, you are claiming the existence of something that Rand would call "intrinsic" knowledge, i.e., knowledge independent of a knower.  She (and I) claim that such a thing does not exist.
In doing this we have, unintentionally, created an abstract "world" which in many ways exceeds us.
How do you mean?  This is really beginning to sound like Plato's heaven.
It contains numbers no human has ever thought of, circles that no human can ever draw, problems that no-one has noticed yet, not even the original thinkers.
This is Plato's heaven.  You are describing "The Forms of Numbers" and "The Ideal Circle" here.
It has some contents which are *external to any thinker that will ever live*.
I'm curious as to how can you possibly make a claim like this.  Do you have any examples of these contents?
(It was these qualities that so impressed Plato he placed them at the beginning of all things).
Plato was mistaken, not only to place them at the beginning of all things, but to assume their existence at all.
Of course, you can shoehorn all these things into two or even one world if you want. But you'll find by the time you cover off all those issues, it starts to be a pretty uncomfortable fit. Hence Popper's provocative conjecture. After all while one should be intellectually parsimonious, there is also such a thing as a false economy!
I'm sorry, but as far as I can tell, this "trialism" idea amount to this:

W1: material objects, not including mental entities such as thoughts, emotions, dreams, etc.  What we directly perceive.
W2: sensations and perception, things which one needs concepts and language to categorize and describe.
W3: concepts, abstract relationships-- all that will ever exist, whether a person has thought of them or not.

Since W3 consists of all concepts, ideas, etc., as existing independently of whether any human has (or ever will) think of them, I can only assume that W3 introduces an intrinsic conception of universals, "Popper's Heaven", if you will.  The only difference seems to be that whereas Plato supposed that God created the world of Ideal Forms, Popper suggests that humans somehow create the whole realm in their attempts to understand the world.  However, the source of the alleged intrinsic knowledge is irrelevant-- both ideas of knowledge existing independently of a knower are mistaken.

Nate T.


Post 97

Tuesday, May 31, 2005 - 3:59pmSanction this postReply
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Brendan,
I don’t think I was being condescending ...

I do.

... merely appreciating your comments that the relationship between objects can be “messy and imprecise”, hence any measurement will be likewise.

You know that isn't my position.  Precision is always accompanied by a context. A lay person would call approximating the length of a skyscraper with a meterstick "messy and imprecise."  However, if they thought about it, they would realize that it is in the nature of measurment for there to be error, and the kind of precision that I've offered is the only kind possible.

The concept “chair” is an abstraction. Are you saying this concept has no relation to real chairs?

No.  Do not equate standard of measurement with concept-- that was the equivocation that Daniel was making earlier between his "abstract meter" and the concept of a meter (we're still trying to get to the bottom of it).  I'm saying that without some kind of way to relate your abstract standard to the perceptual level, your abstract standard is useless to measure things.  And merely stating that it is the length a beam of light travels in 1/300 000 000th of a second is not sufficient-- you must show me you have a way to distinguish lengths that small.

If it were impossible to relate abstractions and material objects, we would find it impossible to navigate our way around the world.

Correct.

I think the question you’re asking here involves interactionism: what is the relationship between mental events and physical events? That’s a whole different other subject., and not for this thread. But briefly, take the example of a burn causing pain.

Which question of mine is this supposed to address?  I've posed a number of them to you.

We can explain a burn by appealing to the relevant physical laws of the effect of heat on the skin, how this produces electrical impulse in nerves, which then travel to the brain, causing patterns of brain waves and so on.

 

But none of this is sufficient to explain the experience: “feeling the pain of a burn”. To do that we have to use a different type of explanation, the language of mental events – “It hurts bad, feels like fire etc”. But the different explanation doesn’t negate a connection between the two events.

We need not explain the physical cause of burns in order to refer to them, nor to realize that they are caused when you stick your hand in a fire.  After all, we're referring to them right now by using the word "burn."  In any case, I agree that this is best discussed in another thread.

 

Nate T.




Post 98

Tuesday, May 31, 2005 - 5:36pmSanction this postReply
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Nate
>Hi Daniel,Thanks for your brief exposition of Popper's metaphysics-- it helps a lot to know where you're coming from.

That's cool. It is an unorthodox idea I admit, so I don't mind explaining it.

>Hmm, this is puzzling. I suppose if you want to define "objective" as "outside one's consciousness" as you seem to be doing, then it's clear that your consciousness is "subjective", which you're defining as "not objective" in the aforementioned sense.

Yes. I draw a strong distinction between "consciousness" and "existence", as did Rand, while obviously acknowledging - as she also did - that consciousness exists!

Nate:
> And it's not just Hegelians that considers the terminology "objective consciousness" to be valid. Rand defines objective not just as "outside one's consciousness," but "corresponding to an external reality." It is in this sense that Rand talks about "objective reasoning" or "objective mesurement" being done by one person (and it is in this sense that she named her philosophy). However, these, too, would be contradictory looking through a Popperian lens.

Yes. We Popperians complain that philosophers, including Rand, do not sufficiently distinguish between the *subjective* and the *objective* (not that I want to belabour those terms). So let me just probe this point a bit further.

For clarity, could I adapt your definition to highlight just *what* is corresponding to external reality in Rand's theory? So your statement would read roughly:

"Rand defines 'objective'...as...(the external reality) 'outside of one's consciousness'...(and)...*an internal state or consciousness* corresponding to external reality".

Further, would I be correct in thinking that the more *exact* the correspondence between consciousness and reality, the more *objective* that consciousness is?

Before we take it further, does this more detailed summation of your position sound ok to you? If not feel free to restate it the way you'd prefer.

- Daniel


(Edited by Daniel Barnes
on 5/31, 8:20pm)


Post 99

Tuesday, May 31, 2005 - 9:22pmSanction this postReply
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Hi Daniel,
Yes. We Popperians complain that philosophers, including Rand, do not sufficiently distinguish between the *subjective* and the *objective* (not that I want to belabour those terms). So let me just probe this point a bit further.

For clarity, could I adapt your definition to highlight just *what* is corresponding to external reality in Rand's theory? So your statement would read roughly:

"Rand defines 'objective'...as...(the external reality) 'outside of one's consciousness'...(and)...*an internal state or consciousness* corresponding to external reality".


Well, in asking "to what does the concept of 'objective' apply," you're asking not for a list of existents but for methods of learning about and evaluating the world.  The major things you want to be objective are concept formation and ethical evaluations.

So ultimately to answer your question about what it is that's corresponding to reality when one is objective, I'd say: one's conceptual faculties, in the sense that they are neither inventing truth out of thin air, nor are they accepting truths based upon faith.

Rand says something like this with regard to concept formation when she describes it as
(Rand) "produced by man's consciousness in accordance with the facts of reality, as mental integration of factual data computed by man-- as the products of a cognitive method of classification whose processes must be performed by man, but whose content is dictated by reality."
Further, would I be correct in thinking that the more *exact* the correspondence between consciousness and reality, the more *objective* that consciousness is?
Not really, no-- the question of precision and objectivity are independent in general, although the former requires the latter to be valid.  One can have a relatively poor understanding of some feature of the world, but it can still be objectively correct so long as you specify what part of reality (the context) you were looking at.  You can be objective without knowing a lot and non-objective about very technical questions.

Nate T.


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