| | Here is the real problem with the author's assertion:
", while making it easier for the wealthy. "
How does offering some the opportunity to use unsecured credit(as well as, bear the cost of using unsecured credit) make it any easier for the wealthy to pay for education?
Is this just the author's economic ignorance? Is he asserting that unsecured credit has no additional costs associated with it, and so, the extra fess that are charged to use unsecured credit are subsidizing the wealthy by making education less expensive?
How does he manage to get away with the claim that the use of unsecured credit has no additional costs associated with it?
It isn't the only form of credit possible; there is also secured credit, at lower rates. Those that seek and use the convenience of unsecured credit pay a pooled premium for the privilege of doing so. The pool in total pays the cost of defaults, even when not in default. That is why unsecured credit charges a premium over secured credit. We all do, or should, know the drill when we reach for that credit card and easily get credit; that easy credit comes a ta price.
So, who should pay that premium? Those that don't choose to use unsecured credit?
Is the author's point that the folks who use unsecured credit 'have no other choice?' And so, 'must' use unsecured credit, and therefore(I don't get this part)they should not need to pay the costs/fees associated with using unsecured credit?
In any case, I don't see how any of this makes it any 'easier' or harder for the wealthy to pay for education. It has no impact on them at all, except some imagined princess-on-the-pea impact.
Oh, yeah; the cost of education for all is subsidized by unsecured credit usage fees. Right. That's happening.
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