| | "Is it ever rational to abstain from voting?"
Yes, when it can be shown that it does not serve its purpose of protecting existing freedom or moving towards greater freedom.
For example, if there is real choice on the ballot. Say, there are only two people running in a particular race, no third party, no write-in space, no "None of the above," and the two people are both unacceptable to the extent that a rational person would not sanction either for the office, even as a partial step in the right direction. ----------
Here is a question... When someone says they didn't vote in a particular race, did they go to the polling both and vote in other races? Or, did they skip voting for any of the positions?
That might change the answer to, "Yes, if voting as a mechanism, as it exists in the particular county or country can be shown as totally non-effective in moving the government towards more freedom, (or keeping it from moving towards more statism). Like a vote when you know that voter fraud is so high that it will always change the outcome."
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