Hi, Joe. Let me address a couple of the questions you raised in Post #32. You said:
Causal connections seem like a relatively unique kind of knowledge. It does seem like you can identify them with just a single instance, although you might need more examples to gain a deeper understanding. But does it make sense to conclude it is the only form of knowledge?
On page 6, Harriman states that “Induction is the primary process of gaining knowledge that goes beyond perceptual data.” [Italics added.] Now, there are two different meanings of the term “induction” that I think Harriman ignores. Some use “induction” to mean any inference that isn’t deduction. That includes inferences other than generalizations from some to all; it includes, for example, inference to the best explanation (abduction). In this usage, there are only induction and deduction. Others, including Harriman, use “induction” only to mean generalizing from some to all. However, on p. 8, Harriman says: “Inducing and deducing are man’s means of justifying anything.” Unless he means inducing in the broader sense, this isn’t true.
You continued:
Say our caveman ancestors discovered fire. They learn a few things along the way, such as wood burns, that wet wood doesn't burn as well, the fire will go out when all of the wood is converted to ash, small fires can be blown out by a strong wind, and that enough water puts out a fire. … Is it really intellectually faulty for them to act as if all wood burns, or that wet wood doesn't? Sure, it'd be better if they understood the underlying mechanisms for why wood burns, but don't they need to identify the fact that it does burn before they can start looking for the reasons?
This is my understanding of Peikoff/Harriman: When the cavemen identify the fact that wood burns, they are making a first-level generalization. By using the concepts “wood” and “fire”, which are first-level concepts, when they say that “fire makes wood burn” they are conceptualizing the causal connection they have observed. And this generalization is self-evident. They don’t need to know what the underlying cause is for a first-level generalization; it’s perceptual. In order to validate higher-order generalizations based on this, they have to find causal connections with lower-level generalizations until they reach the first-level generalization “fire makes wood burn”. That is, they have to reduce a higher-level generalization down to a first-level generalization, which is self-evident.
If they then find that wet wood doesn’t burn, that doesn’t invalidate their first-level generalization. An additional factor has been added that wasn’t included in their original first-level generalization. This is like Peikoff’s example of the blood types. The existence of the Rh factor didn’t change the fact that type A blood was compatible with type A blood. Likewise, the statement that “fire makes wood burn” is still true, even though wet wood doesn’t burn. The same holds for all of the other facts that they learn about wood burning. This is an example of the requirement of a preamble that Rand talks about on page 296 of ITOE: “Within my present context, omitting elements of which I have no knowledge at present, …”.
You also asked:
But doesn't that simply turn it into deduction?
The first-level generalization is perceived. Higher-level generalizations are reduced to these by showing causal connections. It's exactly analogous to reducing higher-level concepts to first-level concepts (of which first-level generalizations must consist). I'm not sure I would call that deduction.
I'm still trying to understand the Peikoff/Harriman model of induction, so I may have misrepresented their view above. But, the underlying idea is the fact that all inductive generalizations must be based on causal relations. Here's a quote from Harriman, p. 21, that sums it up:
The only justification for inferring the future from the actions of the past is the fact that the past actions occurred not arbitrarily or miraculously, but for a reason, a reason inherent in the nature of the acting entities themselves; i.e., the justification is that the past actions were effects of causes -- and thus if the same cause is operative tomorrow, it will result in the same effect.
I should add that Rand does talk briefly about induction in the Q&A of ITOE, pages 295-301. When asked how a person can determine that all water boils at the same temperature, or whether that temperature is specific to the particular sample, she says:
By whether you can or cannot establish a causal connection between what you have determined to be the essential characteristic of water and the fact that it boils at a certain temperature.
Thanks,
Glenn
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