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Post 20

Tuesday, April 27, 2004 - 8:33amSanction this postReply
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David, Michael,

[I see that Michael has posted an excellent answer, making my post somewhat superfluous. Since our approach is different, you might find something in my answer to help you as well (and I'm not going to throw it away now I've written it). Michael's is the better answer from a Strict Objectivist view, I think, and he deals very nicely with the fallacy of the arbitrary which I have not addressed at all.] 

That is a fair question for a student of Objectivism.

... we are entitled to ask what created the universe ...
 
Of course, but if we do ask it, we are assuming an answer to a more fundamental question, "does existence have a beginning or does it always exist?" If the answer is, "existence always exists," there is no question of beginnings or origins.

To ask the question assumes existence or the universe (by which I am supposing you mean, as Objectivists do, all that exists) did not always exist, and, therefore, something had to "cause" it to exist.

There are two problems with that assumption from an Objectivist point of view:

First, if there were a something (God, for example) that caused existence, that something would have to exist. Certainly something that does not exist is not the cause of anything. But, if that something exists, since you are assuming existence (everything that exists) must have a beginning, that something would also have a beginning. We must therefore assume, if your principle is correct, either an endless regress of "causes" of existence (a logical absurdity) or admit that something can exist without a cause. The theist says that existence-without-a-cause is God, with no evidence at all one exists; the Objectivist says that existence-without-a-cause is the material universe, with more than enough evidence that it exists.

Second, the notion that something can be "caused" to exist is foreign to Objectivism. In everyday language we talk about cause in that way. We think of an inventor as the "cause" of the invention he "created." Philosophically, this is a mistake. Objectivists understand that cause is firmly rooted in the nature of the entities which act. What a thing does is determined by its nature and whatever relationships it has to other entities.

It is not, however, the other entities or the relationships that determine what a thing does, but its own nature. This can obviously be seen by a simple illustration. Imagine any two objects in exactly the same environment, such as a rock and a bubble. Their behavior will be entirely different, even if their relationships to other things are identical. While the behavior of both is related to the other things in their environment, it is not the other things that cause their behavior, but their own nature and properties.

Since the notion of cause in Objectivism is rooted firmly in the nature of the existents themselves, the idea that anything "causes" anything else to exist is not valid in Objectivism (or any correct philosophy). The inventor does not "cause" the invention to exist, the cause is the behavior of all the existents involved in its "creation" behaving as their nature determines, including the behavior of the inventor. Nothing exists, however, where before its existence there was nothing.

This is not a whole answer, of course, but it should at least help you see why the question you pose is not considered a valid one to Objectivists. The question itself is based on a logical impossibility, that existence has a beginning, or, in Michael's terms, an arbitrary (baseless) assumption.

Regi



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Post 21

Tuesday, April 27, 2004 - 10:39amSanction this postReply
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I am glad to hear that you are studying Objectivism and are willing to question things. Let me address a few questions from your post.
Thanks for your response Michael.

 
A proposition is said to be arbitrary when it is not merely unsupported, but is unsupportable.  For instance, if I assert that there are special, undetectable  bacteria that live at the sun's core, that would be an arbitrary assertion -- note that I have not merely failed to offer evidence to support my assertion, I have defined it (undetectable) in such a way as to preclude the possibility of evidence.

 
Whilst I'm a new student of Objectivism, I'm not philosophically illiterate, although I might be from your POV....anyway my fundamental problem is that whilst I like bucket loads of what I've read of Objectivism, I feel that Objectivists have hijacked epistemology to the point of suggesting that my proof must be of a certain kind, IOW, it must be within the frame of reference that objectivism supports which is essentially hardcore rationality, this of course rejects my intuition and feelings and demands that my assertions conform to the objectivist framework or be labeled as irrational, whereas I see it as non-rational.

IOW, my intuition forms a premiss, the intuitive impetus to investigate, that investigation is carried out with logic and reason, but if we exclude the possibility of a God at the epistemological level, then naturally it will NEVER be logically justified according to the tenets of Objectivism.

Please note that I haven't included a God in my basic principles, but I believe it's not unreasonable to find one after investigating.
The validity of my line of investigation obviously rests with accepting aspects of mystery, ..IOW, I have NO IDEA how to explain who created the creator, but on the assumption that the big bang theory offers the most secure amounts of empirical data logically considered, then it seems that there was a creation event, and after rejecting the notion of something coming from nothing by itself, I'm forced to conclude that a Godlike entity must have created the universe{and we are the result of inorganic chemical complexity, ie, God only need create matter and forces, and we are an inevitable outcome of ongoing complexity, which by definition is a result of the unwinding of the big bang}.


 
The assertion that god created the universe is arbitrary for the same reason as my bacteria example. God is defined as something that man can never perceive, detect or prove. Hence, we are told, one must suspend reason and accept his existence on faith.
I call it reasonable to assume/suspect his existence, my proof is based on a combination of the empirical evidence and the logical neccesity of it's acceptance, IOW, if the big bang model constitutues the superior empirical model, this would then over-ride assumptions of an eternal universe, as the notion of the eternal universe seems critical/axiomatic to the epistemological exclusion of a creator, whereas I'm assuming after the evidence, you guys seem to be eliminating the possibility via epistemological refinement catered to his exclusion. 


The premise of this statement is that something must have created the universe, as opposed to the universe having always existed. Why? If one is not comfortable with the notion that a thing (the universe) has always existed, that it must have been created, then one also has to ask what created god. Proposing that god created the universe solves nothing, because one is then left with the same set of questions about god.
I answered this part above.



Objectivism holds that the concept "existence" includes everything that exists. Thus to ask "What created existence?", is to ask "What non-existent thing created existence?".  Objectivism's answer is "nothing".
Existence exists -- and that is all that exists, there is no special, outside, non-existent entity that explains existence
.

Again, I submit that our fundamental differences are at this point, whereby I'm willing to accept aspects of mystery WRT to cosmology, whereas you guys totally reject what I guess must still be defined as a belief in the supernatural as a conceptual basis for God's existence, existence in this case not being limited to the refinement of your epistemology, but an expanded pluralistic one that can incorporate mystery but is still a massive fan of logic and reason.


 
There is a great deal more that can be said on this issue -- such as the nature of proof and why one cannot prove a negative -- but let me stop here and get your reaction.
 Ok Michael, do your worst, I'm here in a genuine attempt to attain some higher levels of certainty over this issue.

PS, as my posts are being subjected to Moderator approval and I suspect you guys might dump me as irrational for not "getting it" quickly enough, I'm going to have to withold answering the other forumer's post until this one is approved.

David Mayes.



 


Post 22

Tuesday, April 27, 2004 - 12:53pmSanction this postReply
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Hello, David.
 
You expressed the following concern:  >>PS, as my posts are being subjected to Moderator approval and I suspect you guys might dump me as irrational for not "getting it" quickly enough, I'm going to have to withold answering the other forumer's post until this one is approved.<<

Worry not.  Irrational posts are permitted.  After all, the tolerant Solo folks allow an evil, immoral, whim-worshipping mystic like me to have my say.
 
Regards,
Bill a.k.a. Citizen Rat


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Post 23

Tuesday, April 27, 2004 - 1:12pmSanction this postReply
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Gentlemen:

 

As the subject of Michael Smith’s defamation, I have something to say.

 

Smith is demonstrating one of the great follies of Objectivism:  Condemnation of those who express ideas contrary to Objectivism.  It is one thing to declare a person immoral because he has committed an evil deed.  A deed blazes a trail of evidence leading to it and emanating from it that is identifiable.  So we can objectively know whether the deed was committed, what its nature was, and who did it.

 

None of this is so when it comes to a person’s thoughts.  No objectivity can exist here, because no person can share another’s consciousness.  Yet, Smith declares he knows that I hold my thoughts contrary to my knowledge that they are false, therefore, I am immoral.  To make such a judgment, Smith must have knowledge of three things:  [1] My thoughts; [2] that these thoughts are false; and [3] I have knowledge that my thoughts are false.

 

As to the first item, I have posted a great deal primarily on one topic.  This is all that Smith knows of me.  He is completely ignorant of the context in which I hold the thoughts I have expressed in this forum.  Therefore, it is a dubious enterprise Smith has embarked upon:  Damning a man for his thoughts when he is aware of only the smallest slice of this thinking.  But let’s say the rest of what I think isn’t necessary for Smith to pass judgment.  OK.  Then he needs to at least get right the thoughts I have expressed here.  However, he bollixed that, prattling on about how I have argued against atheism, when in fact I was arguing against materialism.

 

As to the second item, because Smith has not even gotten my thoughts right, he can hardly show them false.  Knocking down strawmen is no basis for the kind of judgment he has passed.  However, let’s say he has correctly identified my thoughts.  For the purposes of his judgment, mere disagreement is insufficient.  He must demonstrate that my thoughts are flatly contrary to reality.  This is no small thing beyond the realm of plain facts.  We are not arguing over what color the sky is or the year Columbus discovered the New World.  I have expressed thoughts in disagreement with Objectivist metaphysics.  Thus, to sit in judgment of my thoughts, he must assert that Objectivism is metaphysical flawless and that his grasp of such is similarly perfect (which assumes I recognize Objectivism’s jurisdiction over this matter, which I don’t).  If Smith allows for any doubt on this, he is incompetent to judge my thoughts as false.

 

Finally, Smith states that I am immoral because I know (or should know) that my thoughts are false.  I’ll grant that if you know someone intimately for a long enough period, you can acquire a deep knowledge of that person’s mind.  But that intimate knowledge is still not the certainty one must possess to pass the judgment Smith wants to.  Smith would have to share my consciousness to know whether or not I know my thoughts are false, and that is flat out impossible.

 

All of which shows that no one is capable of passing the kind of judgment Smith has pronounced.  To do so is contrary to reality – and that must mean Smith himself is …  Well, no.  Smith’s hubris may be foolish, but it isn’t immoral.

 

Regards,

Bill a.k.a. Citizen Rat


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Post 24

Tuesday, April 27, 2004 - 2:57pmSanction this postReply
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David:

In your first post you said:

I'm simply curious about the origin of the universe and I'm looking for both logical and epistemological certainty with this issue.
In your second post you said:


My fundamental problem is that whilst I like bucket loads of what I've read of Objectivism, I feel that Objectivists have hijacked epistemology to the point of suggesting that my proof must be of a certain kind, IOW, it must be within the frame of reference that objectivism supports which is essentially hardcore rationality, this of course rejects my intuition and feelings and demands that my assertions conform to the objectivist framework or be labeled as irrational, whereas I see it as non-rational.
And

The validity of my line of investigation obviously rests with accepting aspects of mystery,

I’m afraid you have conflicting goals, David.

"Logical and epistemological certainty" are not possible on the basis of feelings, intuition and “mystery”. Anyone can claim to feel anything, anyone can claim any intuition, any notion can be endorsed on the basis of "mystery". How will you determine what is true and what is false? In the event of a conflict between two people's positions, on what basis will you assert that one person’s feelings/intuition/mystery is more valid than another‘s?

You have to make a choice, David. Either reason is an absolute, i.e. it is man’s only means of gaining knowledge -- or it is not an absolute. If it is not an absolute, if proof “need not be of a certain type”, then anything goes, anyone can claim anything to be true and you have no way of distinguishing truth from falsehood.

Again, I submit that our fundamental differences are at this point, whereby I'm willing to accept aspects of mystery WRT to cosmology, whereas you guys totally reject what I guess must still be defined as a belief in the supernatural as a conceptual basis for God's existence, existence in this case not being limited to the refinement of your epistemology, but an expanded pluralistic one that can incorporate mystery but is still a massive fan of logic and reason.

 I agree with you. That is our fundamental difference. However, if reason is not an absolute, there is no way to resolve any differences.


Post 25

Tuesday, April 27, 2004 - 5:11pmSanction this postReply
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In defense of Smith, I must say:
  1. If we cannot know your thoughts by what you say, but instead must step into your head and become you, then by the same token you cannot know ours.
  2. If we are disallowed from calling your thoughts false on the basis of Objectivist metaphysics (which, by the way, among other things holds the law of identity as an all-embracing absolute), then you are disallowed from calling our thoughts false on the basis of your own metaphysics (which, by the way, according to you admits of exceptions to the law of identity).
  3. The jury is still out in my own mind. If enough evidence of evasion accumulates, I have no problem pronouncing someone immoral. Or, maybe, lacking the mind for philosophic inquiry and unwilling to admit it--which would still be a moral issue.


Post 26

Tuesday, April 27, 2004 - 8:25pmSanction this postReply
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Hi, Rodney.
 
You wrote: >>If we cannot know your thoughts by what you say, but instead must step into your head and become you, then by the same token you cannot know ours.<<
 
If you double-check my third point, I said that you cannot know if I know a thought I have communicated is false without stepping inside my head.
 
This is to be distinguish from my first point:  Condemning someone as immoral from a limited exchange on a single topic (which Smith apparently didn't get the gist of) is a flimsy basis for judgment.
 
Regards,
Bill a.k.a. Citizen Rat
 
 
 


Post 27

Tuesday, April 27, 2004 - 10:22pmSanction this postReply
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David wrote:
>IOW, my intuition forms a premiss, the intuitive impetus to investigate, that investigation is carried out with logic and reason...

David, I think this sums up the actual process nicely - certainly from a Popperian perspective! Though I would add "imagination" to "intuition" as a possible initial step.

After all, all discoveries are journeys from the known into the unknown. So all fruitful premisses or hypotheses must start out as imaginative guesses anyway. Otherwise you're just recycing what you know already.

Reason - and experiment - then comes into play in trying to determine the truth of these guesses.

I don't think this is really a problem anyway, as from an outside point of view, Objectivism seems to have a pretty broad interpretation of "reason" that seems to include a role for imagination and intution. Its founding works are novels after all!

- Daniel

Post 28

Wednesday, April 28, 2004 - 6:01amSanction this postReply
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David,

You said, IOW, my intuition forms a premiss, the intuitive impetus to investigate, that investigation is carried out with logic and reason, but if we exclude the possibility of a God at the epistemological level, then naturally it will NEVER be logically justified according to the tenets of Objectivism.
 
There are things which must be excluded at the epistemological level, one is contradiction. God is just a word without meaning until it is giving a definition indicating what it identifies. If you use the word God, for example, to identify an observable existent of phenomenon, or an abstract concept logically derived from the observable, that certainly wouldn't be excluded at the epistemological level. But if you us the word God, without identification, or with a contradictory one, in place of a valid concept, that certainly must be excluded at the epistemological level, along with all the other made-up things people superstitiously believe in.

There is no definition of God that stands up to logical scrutiny. All definitions of God are either self-contradictory or contradictory of fact. Until there is a non-contradictory definition of the word God, it is a pseudo-concept and certainly must be banished from any rational epistemology.

Regi


Post 29

Wednesday, April 28, 2004 - 6:23amSanction this postReply
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I was answering your first point, not your third. The topic there is whether Smith can know your thoughts (prior to judging them). There, you say that a person has to know more about your thoughts than you are saying, in order to be aware of your thoughts. Basically, I was answering the following sentence: "But let’s say the rest of what I think isn’t necessary for Smith to pass judgment." I am pointing out that such an assumption is the true one. Whether his perception of what your thoughts are is correct is another question. I agree that one has to consider your whole (stated) context. (That is what I am going to try to do in my planned reply.)

It is surely tenable that you are arguing against atheism, since you are concerned that Objectivism does not "leave room for god"--that we irrationally rule god out and thus become materialists in spite of our stated views in other areas.


Post 30

Wednesday, April 28, 2004 - 8:36amSanction this postReply
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Hi, Rodney.
 
You stated:  >>It is surely tenable that you are arguing against atheism, since you are concerned that Objectivism does not "leave room for god"--that we irrationally rule god out and thus become materialists in spite of our stated views in other areas.<<
 
I see how that misunderstanding was possible early on in my discourse while I was beginning to unfold the point I wanted to make.  However, even then I wasn't arguing that Objectivists should not be atheists, but rather experience indicates a realm of reality in which God would be possible, not necessary -- and for THAT reason, I thought Objectivism was mistaken to make the denial of God a metaphysical fact.
 
Regards,
Bill a.k.a. Citizen Rat


Post 31

Wednesday, April 28, 2004 - 8:45amSanction this postReply
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First, if there were a something (God, for example) that caused existence, that something would have to exist. Certainly something that does not exist is not the cause of anything. But, if that something exists, since you are assuming existence (everything that exists) must have a beginning, that something would also have a beginning. We must therefore assume, if your principle is correct, either an endless regress of "causes" of existence (a logical absurdity) or admit that something can exist without a cause. The theist says that existence-without-a-cause is God, with no evidence at all one exists; the Objectivist says that existence-without-a-cause is the material universe, with more than enough evidence that it exists.

 

Hi Regi.

 

As you gents have mentioned, you conclude an eternal universe, and this seems curious as the big bang model would suggested otherwise, it suggests at minimum, one creation/bang event.

Whilst I don't think science can ever explain "what" did the creating, it's the superior empirical model of the universes origin and unfolding, and it's that knowledge that makes me doubt the idea of an eternal universe.

 

Unless you can show me why the big bang was unlikely{given the evidence}, I can't really accept an eternal universe....in fact it seems as though it's absolutely necessary for your dismissal of any God concept that you support an eternal one.

As for God existing, this existence is of a conceptual kind where God is conceptually considered transcendent and doesn't have to conform to rules and regulations of the "Physical paradigm of reality", where reality is that which has physical content, and ideally measurable via some form of instrument{scientific/empirical bias}.


 

Second, the notion that something can be "caused" to exist is foreign to Objectivism. In everyday language we talk about cause in that way. We think of an inventor as the "cause" of the invention he "created." Philosophically, this is a mistake. Objectivists understand that cause is firmly rooted in the nature of the entities which act. What a thing does is determined by its nature and whatever relationships it has to other entities.

Well, it again comes down to whether one rejects the idea that feelings that have been logically justified have validity in "life"...IOW, the feelings/intuitions are the impetus for investigation, but they are honed along the way by reason and logic, and should be rejected if they prompt absurdity.

 

Btw, I started studying philosophy/science as an adult, and expected to dump all God concepts, but found that there was room for a creator, although not as expressed by ANY religious text, but rather by being reasonable about the whole process.

 

It seems to me that scientifically we can accept a big bang model, although we can't just accept the creation event as a brute fact, ie, a brute fact tells me nothing and is not a justification for atheism, it's knowledge content is shaky and necessary to support the rest of the show.

 

, it is not the other things that cause their behavior, but their own nature and properties.

Within the physical paradigm perhaps, although scientifically, we still need the simple cause and effect relations, and successful predictions validate the process.


 

or an abstract concept logically derived from the observable,

That's it, that's how I would phrase it....the observable being the universe and the concept being a transcedent entity.

 


 


Post 32

Wednesday, April 28, 2004 - 9:04amSanction this postReply
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"Logical and epistemological certainty" are not possible on the basis of feelings, intuition and “mystery”

Michael.

When you say basis, it sounds as though you think I'm advocating the assertion of virtually anything, but actually, any of my assertions are subject to my own rational scrutiny and also others rational scrutiny....but, if you immediately reject someone having a "feeling" that God might exist, then of course from your epistemological vantage point no logical certainty could ever be possible.
I often hear people say.."I went looking for proof of God, I used science and couldn't find him"....well they NEVER will as science isn't what you use, it's metaphysics/philosophy that can only ever prove God exists, although the structure of the epistemology that one relies on must be tolerant otherwise it's back to square one.


Anyone can claim to feel anything, anyone can claim any intuition, any notion can be endorsed on the basis of "mystery".

I really said we have to accept elements of mystery, ie, to avoid the logical regress of who or what created the creator.

 
You have to make a choice, David. Either reason is an absolute, i.e. it is man’s only means of gaining knowledge -- or it is not an absolute. If it is not an absolute, if proof “need not be of a certain type”, then anything goes, anyone can claim anything to be true and you have no way of distinguishing truth from falsehood.
Intuitive knowledge is the impetus, reason determines its likelyhood.


Post 33

Wednesday, April 28, 2004 - 9:06amSanction this postReply
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Reason - and experiment - then comes into play in trying to determine the truth of these guesses.
Sounds reasonable.

I don't think this is really a problem anyway, as from an outside point of view, Objectivism seems to have a pretty broad interpretation of "reason" that seems to include a role for imagination and intution. Its founding works are novels after all!
Interesting!!

Good post  Daniel.


Post 34

Wednesday, April 28, 2004 - 9:17amSanction this postReply
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After all, the tolerant Solo folks allow an evil, immoral, whim-worshipping mystic like me to have my say.

Citizen Rat.

I'm a fan of civil discourse at philosophy forums, it seems absurd to be rude and hasty considering the subject matter and the fact that no-one of insignificant intelligence can possibily sustain philosophical discussions.....so, I'm very tolerant myself, although have noted the tendancy of "some" Objectivists to rush to a judgement of irrationality if their fellow forumer doesn't get on board with the totality of Objectivism.

Having said that, I feel as though I've been treated respectfully and continue to return the respect to the members of this forum.

Considering you've told me a lot about yourself, what's your biggest sin, hedonism..?{LOL}


Post 35

Wednesday, April 28, 2004 - 3:58pmSanction this postReply
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Bill, you say "I wasn't arguing that Objectivists should not be atheists, but rather experience indicates a realm of reality in which God would be possible, not necessary -- and for that reason, I thought Objectivism was mistaken to make the denial of God a metaphysical fact."

So you advocate that Objectivists should be atheists who allow that God might exist? It would be OK to believe there is no God, as long as we allow for the possibility that there might be a God?

You have no problem with atheism based on the lack of positive evidence for God, but atheism based on the axioms of existence, identity, and causality strikes you as irrational. Is this an accurate characterization of your position?

(Edited by Rodney Rawlings on 4/28, 4:37pm)


Post 36

Wednesday, April 28, 2004 - 4:00pmSanction this postReply
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David:

When you say basis, it sounds as though you think I'm advocating the assertion of virtually anything, but actually, any of my assertions are subject to my own rational scrutiny and also others rational scrutiny....but, if you immediately reject someone having a "feeling" that God might exist, then of course from your epistemological vantage point no logical certainty could ever be possible.

Objectivism does not reject the existence of feelings -- to the contrary, feelings are how we experience the enjoyment of life and are thus an integral part of Objectivism. But feelings have one role in life -- and reason has another. Feelings are your physical, emotional reaction to things, to events, to people, to ideas, etc. Reason is your means of gaining knowledge. The two are not interchangeable.

The fact that someone has a feeling that god might exist may tell you something about that person's values and beliefs -- but it tells you nothing about whether or not god actually exists.


Post 37

Wednesday, April 28, 2004 - 6:23pmSanction this postReply
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Hi, Rodney.
 
You asked: >>You have no problem with atheism based on the lack of positive evidence for God, but atheism based on the axioms of existence, identity, and causality strikes you as irrational. Is this an accurate characterization of your position?<<
 
Yes, except that I would say "mistaken" as opposed to "irrational", because the loaded nature of the latter in Objectivese.  A belief or disbelief in God cannot be held with the same certitude as scientific knowledge.  Doubt is part of the package.  In my experience, anyone who claims his faith in God is without doubt either has not put much thought into the matter or is dishonest.
 
Regards,
Bill a.k.a. Citizen Rat


Post 38

Wednesday, April 28, 2004 - 6:29pmSanction this postReply
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Hi, David.
 
You asked: >>Considering you've told me a lot about yourself, what's your biggest sin, hedonism..?{LOL}<<
 
My excessive modesty.
 
Regards,
Bill a.k.a. Citizen Rat


Post 39

Wednesday, April 28, 2004 - 6:38pmSanction this postReply
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For the record, you have used the word "irrational" in that context. And from what you say here, you meant it. Correct?

Secondly, could you please restate here your definition of God (because I'm sure you must have given it somewhere at SOLO), as accurately and completely as possible? (If you prefer, simply direct me to the earlier post where you told us what you mean by God.) I already have a good idea of your meaning, of course, but your own summation would be helpful in framing my reply.

(Edited by Rodney Rawlings on 4/29, 8:04am)


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