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Post 160

Tuesday, April 25, 2006 - 10:01amSanction this postReply
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What John said.

Ed


Post 161

Tuesday, April 25, 2006 - 11:01amSanction this postReply
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John, you wrote:
After reading 7 pages of posts on this thread, and hearing your stated goal of discrediting objectivism,
Not correct. In post #127, I exactly wrote:

"To me, as a philosophy, Objectivism is already discredited. 

"I contribute at RoR just to check my philosophical views, contrasting them with Objectivist ideas and other quasi-Objectivist materialist conceptions of reality."


I find you to be intellectually dishonest to now declare victory and evade the arguments presented to you.
I see you (again) felt compelled to defend your line performing ad hominems. A typically Objectivist practice.

I will center on ideas.
  
Your judgement, I think, has been too hasty. To have a more complete view on what I think about Objectivism, you will need to read from my complete track of writings. Thanks to the necessary Being (for His creation), to the American Army (for inventing the Internet) and the SOLOHQ owners (for keeping the old posts in their servers), you may find all of them here.


How do immaterial entities exist external to the mind (As Bill asked you, please show me a disembodied consciousness; show me an immortal soul.)?
As a measure of good will, I will state my position again --in example, I already partially did it here on RoR.

My current position on the existence of the (human) soul can be briefly described as follows:


1.- I think that human souls do somehow exist. I don't know how they exist.


2.1.- But I know that, the scientific method, which is epistemological materialism, it's intrinsically useless to demonstrate "anything extra" materiality. (Anyway, the scientific method is useful to build and reinforce the case for the existence of the soul.)

2.2.- The alternative is to check whether the soul is a necessary being by resorting to induction and deduction.

Following point 2.2, my line of reasoning goes as follows:

A.- We know (by observation & induction) that mankind is "quantitatively" superior to animals in intellectual grounds; moreover, we know that, differently than animals, man has the additional "qualitative" attribute of volition --besides, the relevant volitional processes involve morality.

[Here goes a "tricky" point:]

B.- I assume that man is endowed with free will. If man is a volitional being, volition cannot be a product of an uncontrolled chain of physiological (unconscious) events. That means that the entity which is the source of human volition cannot be anything physical. (We can detect the chemical reactions product of conscience, but not the source of those reactions, which is conscience itself.)

C.- Then, I reach the conclusion that the soul --a personal, immaterial entity-- must exist in order to make the existence of man, which is a rational & volitional animal, possible.


& 3.- So my position the existence of the individual, immaterial entity we name the human soul is a necessary condition to make possible the existence of the rational & volitional animal we name man.
 
(Of course, I know that that immaterial entity is 100% incompatible with Objectivism.)


Now, you may check my post record, and then eventually elaborate your dissent. Understand that I will take the time to reply any new post only if I deem your added points as relevant to the discussion.

(Edited by Joel Català on 4/25, 12:31pm)


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Post 162

Tuesday, April 25, 2006 - 12:45pmSanction this postReply
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Joel wrote:

John, you wrote:

After reading 7 pages of posts on this thread, and hearing your stated goal of discrediting objectivism,
Not correct. In post #127, I exactly wrote:

"To me, as a philosophy, Objectivism is already discredited. 

"I contribute at RoR just to check my philosophical views, contrasting them with Objectivist ideas and other quasi-Objectivist materialist conceptions of reality."
Perhaps I should've expounded more clearly on what I meant. It is clear your stated goal is to discredit objectivism to those of us on this forum, and since you are working backwards from your conclusion, I find this to be intellectually dishonest.

I find you to be intellectually dishonest to now declare victory and evade the arguments presented to you.
I see you (again) felt compelled to defend your line performing ad hominems. Hardly a non-Objectivist practice.

It's not an ad hominem since I was responding to your non-argument that "To me, as a philosophy, Objectivism is already discredited" from which you proceeded to take Rand's writings out of context, and evade arguments presented to you by Bill. This is called intellectual dishonesty. It would be an ad hominem if I used it to discredit an argument you presented, which I did not.  I was merely making an observation of your strawman arguments and evasion.

Your judgement has been too hasty in regards to my performances critiquing Objectivism. To have a more complete view on what I think about Objectivism, you will need to read my complete track of writings. Thanks to the American Army (for creating the Internet) and the SOLOHQ owners (for keeping the old posts), you may find all of them here.



How do immaterial entities exist external to the mind (As Bill asked you, please show me a disembodied consciousness; show me an immortal soul.)?
As a measure of good will, I will state my position again --I did it on SOLOHQ.

My current position on the existence of the (human) soul can be briefly described as follows:


1.- I think that human souls do somehow exist. I don't know how they exist.

They somehow exist? Don't you think that is a bit presumptuous?

Definition of somehow: in a way not specified, understood, or known.

We're not off to a good start, but I'll entertain the idea for now:

2.- But I know that, the scientific method, which is epistemological materialism, it's intrinsically useless to demonstrate "anything extra" materiality. (Anyway, the scientific method is useful to build and reinforce the case for the existence of the soul.)
You have to define what you mean by material as I suspect you are resorting to a floating abstraction. First you define materialism to be that which exists in nature (epistemological). You then say there are is an "anything extra" materiality when the original definition of material has now changed from that which exists in nature, to now something that is supernatural. You then go back to saying science, an epistemological method of gaining knowledge, can somehow now reinforce the case for something that is "anything extra" materiality yet also be intrinsically useless to demonstrate "anything extra" materiality?  Your argument is self-refuting.

3.- The method is to check whether the soul is a necessary being.
How is that possible if the method is intrinsically useless to demonstrate "anything extra" materiality? It's the same argument as "intelligent design". Because something is unexplained or yet to be explained, it now becomes evidence of an existence of a necessary being? Hardly, this is begging the question. Just because we can demonstrate someone has free will, or demonstrate man is a moral animal, does not then mean man has a "soul" in order to explain the source of free will. We've only demonstrated man is moral and has free will. Saying a soul is a necessary being to explain this doesn't actually explain anything at all. If you define soul to mean man, then you have created a useless term. We already have a word for a moral animal that has free will, and that word is "man", not soul.

According to point 3, my line of reasoning goes as follows:

A.- We know (by observation & induction) that mankind is "quantitatively" superior to animals in intellectual grounds; moreover, we know that, differently than animals, man has the additional "qualitative" attribute of volition & morality.

[Here goes a "tricky" point:]
B.- I assume that man is endowed with free will. If man is a volitional being, volition and morality cannot be a product of an uncontrolled chain of physiological (unconscious) events. That means that the entity which is the source of human volition cannot be anything physical. (We can detect the chemical reactions product of conscience, but not the source of those reactions, which is conscience itself.)
The source of man's "free will" is his intellect and the objective reality he faces. "Free will" is the ability to make choices knowing what the possible consequences of those choices will be given a set of data presented to him. You say this "ability" is something that cannot by physical, but this is simply begging the question. Why can't it be physical? Free will is the observation that man can make choices about his reality, free will is not a material entity external to the mind, it is not a property that exists independently of the thing that manifests it, which in this case is man. Free will is only a concept to define human abilities, i.e. his "intellect". Intellect is a quality used to define man. You now have defined "soul" to be "intellect". And your proof of man's intellect is his soul, which is a circular argument:

C.- Then, I reach the conclusion that the soul --a personal, immaterial entity-- must exist in order to make the existence of man, which is a rational & moral animal, possible.

& 3.- So my position the existence of the individual, immaterial entity we name the human soul is a necessary condition to make possible the existence of the rational & moral animal we name man.

This is exactly the same thought pattern to the argument for intelligent design. You've tried to explain something that did not require explanation by introducing a useless word. Joel this is nothing new. Just because man exhibit's free will, doesn't presuppose then a soul must exist to explain the source of this free will.

Now, you may check my post record, and then eventually elaborate your dissent. Understand that I will take the time to reply any new post only if I deem the added points as relevant to the discussion.
I breathlessly await.


 


Post 163

Tuesday, April 25, 2006 - 7:48pmSanction this postReply
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It's true you can find various studies concerning sex as beneficial for heart, prostate, etc. With rare and much weaker exceptions, however, the effects are the same for masturbation. Sex-for-one certainly isn't the concern for evolution, and I'm assuming it's not what we're concerned with for Objectivism and the idea of all values supporting individual survival. If you sincerely want to argue on the basis of health, you have to stack the set of studies suggesting benefits that almost all do not require two people, and on the other the health risks of disease, childbirth, and indirect effects of jealousy from the drive for non-solo sex we instinctively have. I'm for sex and don't mind if the drive is due to wiring; I just do not see how it really adds up to individual survival rather than propagating the chromosomes.

As for the evolutionary based arguments you are making concerning pleasure center, Bill, your connecting it survival requirements has validity but goes so far as to border on assigning purpose to evolution. Natural selection is powerful indeed, and it makes sense that mutations to form a pleasure (and pain) system largely in line with survival would continue being selected. But selection is also blind, imperfect, biological functions change, even appendixes and panda thumbs can get passed on, etc. Treating pleasure/pain as always or purposely tied to survival wouldn't be valid. You may be on to something about how Rand viewed it, however. I don't think she was an ID'er, but she was also not an evolutionist; it may be that she was viewing human biology somewhat teleologically.

As for immortality and realism - it's obvious we're really talking past each other and I'm not sure what else to do with it. All the immortal hypotheticals concern things which do not exist, to the best of our knowledge cannot exist, and could not be known if they ever did exist. Rand: "What if twelve angels could fit on the head of a pin?" Me: "What if only seven could?" "Hey! That's crazy talk!" :)


Post 164

Tuesday, April 25, 2006 - 10:41pmSanction this postReply
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Aaron,

=======================
I'm for sex and don't mind if the drive is due to wiring; I just do not see how it really adds up to individual survival rather than propagating the chromosomes.
=======================

Okay, beyond holding over one's girlfriend's head that she is -- literally -- killing you (by not putting out), you have taken my argument-for-sex in a purely survivalist sense. I (contra David Kelley) am NOT a pure (ahedonistic) survivalist. If you let me choose a century as a living vegetable, wired up to a machine that keeps me alive -- or a single year of life, with functioning limbs, lungs, and mind; then which one do you think I (or ANYONE!) would choose??

Morality is not about merely staving off death -- it's about really ... truly ... living (and sex is part of that).

:-)

Ed

(Edited by Ed Thompson on 4/25, 10:42pm)


Post 165

Wednesday, April 26, 2006 - 2:29amSanction this postReply
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John, you said:
You then go back to saying science, an epistemological method of gaining knowledge, can somehow now reinforce the case for something that is "anything extra" materiality yet also be intrinsically useless to demonstrate "anything extra" materiality?  Your argument is self-refuting.
Not true. When I said:

"[...] the scientific method is useful to build and reinforce the case for the existence of the soul", I meant that the scientific method permits you to discard possibilities. The name of this procedure is falsification or refutation.

In this link you have a more detailed explanation of that:

"It is not science that proves the existence of the soul, but it is our reason that finds in science the confirmation of the transcendent nature of consciousness to matter and its processes. It is our reason that analyses both the scientific theories and the observable phenomena (including consciousness), and understands that in physics, consciousness doesn't exist; in the laws of physics there are all natural phenomena (physical, chemical and biological) but there is no consciousness." [Bolds mine.]

And this is true because (as I stated repeatedly on RoR) the scientific method is limited by its intrinsical methodological materialism.


We already have a word for a moral animal that has free will, and that word is "man", not soul.
Question-begging. Your question was about what the soul is, not about man; I replied that question.


"Free will" is the ability to make choices knowing what the possible consequences of those choices will be given a set of data presented to him.
Here you are introducing an unsolicited definition of free will, and (again) begging the question of what "free will" is.


Why can't it be physical?
If free will is physical, we are not free at all. We would be soulless animals. Animals are not moral, nor free.

That's why the soul, which is the source of free will, makes a difference between non-volitional animals and man.


Just because man exhibit's free will, doesn't presuppose then a soul must exist to explain the source of this free will.
I see you are defending a physical "free will." If you mean that free will is not the ultimate source of volition, then you are defending that free will is not free.

John, you possibly did not follow my arguments. You need to think about what free will and human consciousness are & are not, and focus on my points A, B and C in post #161 to understand my actual position. Center on my description of the attributes of the human soul, with its immateriality being a consequential one.

Don't be prejudiced; take it in friendly terms, go for it. I will remain open to your arguments.

(Edited by Joel Català on 4/26, 4:17am)


Post 166

Wednesday, April 26, 2006 - 8:37amSanction this postReply
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Joel, it is still not known what the exact nature of consciousness and free will are.  This has certainly been argued here and everywhere else ad infinitum.  However, it is by no means necessary that this proves it is supernatural.  Other possibilities exist to explain volitional consciousness.


Post 167

Wednesday, April 26, 2006 - 9:04amSanction this postReply
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        Kurt said:  

Joel, it is still not known what the exact nature of consciousness and free will are.  
More exactly, free will cannot be "discovered" (in the scientific sense), so of course the exact 'nature' of consciousness and free will is intrinsically impossible to discern. You may check the external link I already provided you on the relation between science and consciousness. There you may read:

"It is not science that proves the existence of the soul, but it is our reason that finds in science the confirmation of the transcendent nature of consciousness to matter and its processes.

"[...] in the laws of physics there are all natural phenomena (physical, chemical and biological) but there is no consciousness."

Again: this is so because science is methodological materialism, and human consciousness involves immateriality. Consciousness is outside empirical reach.

Other possibilities exist to explain volitional consciousness.
You know a materialistic explanation of free will? Feel free to go ahead.

Anyway, I will repeat it again: a materialistic "free will" is a deterministic "free will", and so an oxymoron, and then, wrong.

Would be volitional consciousness impossible, in a totally deterministic universe? If you take man as a part of the universe --and his body certainly is--, yes, freedom would be impossible.

(Edited by Joel Català on 4/26, 10:01am)


Post 168

Wednesday, April 26, 2006 - 9:46amSanction this postReply
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"Okay, beyond holding over one's girlfriend's head that she is -- literally -- killing you (by not putting out), you have taken my argument-for-sex in a purely survivalist sense."

Well, it was a discussion about Rand's essay that values can only come from man's pursuit of survival, so that shouldn't be surprising. :)

"Morality is not about merely staving off death -- it's about really ... truly ... living (and sex is part of that)."

Amen! That accepts there is value in enjoyment even if it's not toward survival, and I heartily agree.


Post 169

Wednesday, April 26, 2006 - 10:48amSanction this postReply
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Joel said:

John, you said:

You then go back to saying science, an epistemological method of gaining knowledge, can somehow now reinforce the case for something that is "anything extra" materiality yet also be intrinsically useless to demonstrate "anything extra" materiality?  Your argument is self-refuting.
Not true. When I said:

"[...] the scientific method is useful to build and reinforce the case for the existence of the soul", I meant that the scientific method permits you to discard possibilities. The name of this procedure is falsification or refutation.

In this link you have a more detailed explanation of that:

"It is not science that proves the existence of the soul, but it is our reason that finds in science the confirmation of the transcendent nature of consciousness to matter and its processes. It is our reason that analyses both the scientific theories and the observable phenomena (including consciousness), and understands that in physics, consciousness doesn't exist; in the laws of physics there are all natural phenomena (physical, chemical and biological) but there is no consciousness." [Bolds mine.]

And this is true because (as I stated repeatedly on RoR) the scientific method is limited by its intrinsical methodological materialism.
Joel, you cannot use a method that helps us understand nature, to then make an argument for the existence of something supernatural. Science does not operate in that way. Your arguments are purely metaphysical, not scientific. You created a bogus metaphysical problem "what is the source of free will" and then insisted the source is a "soul", which really has explained nothing to what a soul is, and this is the same kind of argument for intelligent design, the explanation for the universe given in intelligent design arguments is "god" yet this beg's the question, what is the source of "god" since the bogus problem of a "source" for something must be explained when the question is posed this way. Since you have framed the argument this way, there's no way I can refute you, but you have framed it incorrectly. If there's a "soul", what is the source of a soul?  There is no such thing as a "source" for free will. It doesn't make any sense, free will is "an observation of human behavior", it is a quality used to define man. The source of this "observation of human behavior" are my eyes. I am seeing a "quality" in man through sensory perception, and used this quality in defining him. Hence you have defined soul to be man, you have created a useless term.

We already have a word for a moral animal that has free will, and that word is "man", not soul.
Question-begging. Your question was about what the soul is, not about man; I replied that question.

To which you replied soul is the source of free will. I contend free will is an observation of man's behavior which is a quality defining man, hence you have defined soul to be man. This is not begging the question, this is the logical conclusion to your argument.

"Free will" is the ability to make choices knowing what the possible consequences of those choices will be given a set of data presented to him.
Here you are introducing an unsolicited definition of free will, and (again) begging the question of what "free will" is.

Well Joel I believe this is the source of our contention. You have erroneously framed the argument. My definition is the only intelligible definition of free will. I cannot accept you redefining these terms to other than what they are commonly defined as.

Why can't it be physical?
If free will is physical, we are not free at all. We would be soulless animals. Animals are not moral, nor free.

That's why the soul, which is the source of free will, makes a difference between non-volitional animals and man.

Again, you've only defined soul in this case to be "volition". Man is a volitional animal. So your definition of soul is man. What is man? An animal that displays volition. You then create this nonsensical question "what is the source of volition" and started a series of infinite questions and answers which can only be resolved with circular reasoning.

Question: "What is the source of volition"
Answer: "Soul"
Question: "What is the source of a soul?"
Answer: (fill in the blanks with your choice of supernatural entity)

Rinse and repeat ad infinitum.

All you can say in an attempt to resolve this is "The source of a soul is man", and we have come full circle. This is what I mean by saying you created a meaningless problem to which you give a meaningless solution.

Just because man exhibit's free will, doesn't presuppose then a soul must exist to explain the source of this free will.
I see you are defending a physical "free will." If you mean that free will is not the ultimate source of volition, then you are defending that free will is not free.

Joel this makes no sense. Volition IS Free will, it is not "the ultimate source".

Definition of volition:  The power or faculty of choosing.

Definition of free will: The ability or discretion to choose

Having the power to choose is the ability to choose. You are now redefining these terms to suit your own arguments. I won't accept that.


John, you possibly did not follow my arguments. You need to think about what free will and human consciousness are & are not, and focus on my points A, B and C in post #161 to understand my actual position. Center on my description of the attributes of the human soul, with its immateriality being a consequential one.

Don't be prejudiced; take it in friendly terms, go for it. I will remain open to your arguments.
I have thought about what free will and consciousness are. Saying what they are not does not define what they are at all. I can say a couch is not a chair, but I haven't defined what a couch is. You cannot define something by saying what qualities it does not have, to define something you must say what qualities it possesses. Defining soul by saying what it is not does not define it at all. So I would appreciate it if you could refrain from telling me what I need to do.

Your condescension is not necessary..



 


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Post 170

Thursday, April 27, 2006 - 2:55amSanction this postReply
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 John wrote:
"free will is "an observation of human behavior".
Totally incorrect. Notice that your eyes can observe "animal behavior" --namely, the acts of animals--, but those acts have nothing to do with free will.

From a methodological point of view, the ocular observation of "human behavior" is no different than the ocular observation of "animal behavior." Free will can't be observed.


---

For the sake of clarity, I will re-estate my main points in a summarized fashion. My departing assumption is that man is a volitional being:

A.- Experiments will never detect or measure free will, only the brew of chemical substances produced when volition is exerted can be detected. In the same way, experiments cannot measure feelings. Free will cannot be measured, nor located, anywhere within a man's brain. Deduction: free will must be immaterial.

(More on experimentation and free will in my post #80 replying to Jenna W, in the Dissent thread "Tossing Around a Tautology".)

B.- Free will has its source in the (human) soul --whatever the human soul is. The human soul must be an individual, immaterial entity that makes the existence of man, a volitional animal, possible. An animal qualitatively different and objectively superior to non-volitional animals.

C.- We can't know *what* the soul is --it can't be detected or measured--, but we can deduce *that* the soul is

---


John did not even scratch the surface of my arguments. He was probably blinded by prejudice.

I would suggest him to read this article:

"Scientific contradictions in materialism: emergent and holistic properties, complexity, etc.", by Dr. Marco Biagini, Ph.D. in Solid State Physics;

and, aftwerwards, this one:

"Mind and brain: A scientific discussion leading to the existence of the soul", by the same author, in where it is written:
 
"Materialism is incompatible with the scientific view of biological processes. Science has in fact proved that all chemical, biological and cerebral processes consist only in some successions of elementary physical processes, determined in their turn only by the laws of quantum mechanics. This view of biological processes does not allow (neither conceptually) to account for the existence of consciousness."

Something to think about.

Joel Català

(Edited by Joel Català on 4/27, 9:28am)


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Post 171

Thursday, April 27, 2006 - 11:56pmSanction this postReply
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Joel Catala writes:
I never read anything close to that in Objectivism. Could you elaborate your concept of "secular spirituality"?
http://www.objectivistcenter.org/cth-32-390-Religion.aspx

Secular spirituality is simply this-worldly spirituality; without a hint of mysticism. Mr. Bidinotto's article on "Romanticism in Everyday Life" is a good read.
 Be aware that the terms spirituality and transcendence are linked to immateriality, and so, inimical to Objectivism. Thanks.

Certainly; spirituality & transcendence pertains to man's consciousness & mind; therefore, immaterial matters. This doesn't mean that being spiritual means One must irrationally deny the reality that substance and essence are inextricably interlinked.
To demand of reality that there be an end [e.g., consciousness] without the means [e.g., brain] to achieve it, is arbitrary and without merit.

(Edited by Warren Chase Anspaugh on 4/28, 12:00am)


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Post 172

Friday, April 28, 2006 - 3:04amSanction this postReply
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Warren, you said:
Certainly; spirituality & transcendence pertains to man's consciousness & mind; therefore, immaterial matters.
I fully agree with you in this point, but be aware that Objectivism rejects the existence of immaterial entities.

According to Objectivism, your (and my) position are labeled as "mysticism."

If you accept the actual existence of immateriality, then the existence of the (human) soul --an immaterial entity related to consciousness and volition-- is possible and rational. Of course, that's inimical to Objectivism. 

Objectivism is metaphysical naturalism, which means that (as all materialist philosophies do) Objectivism rejects the existence of immateriality.

Differently, the scientific method is methodological materialism. That means the following:

A.- Experimentation is tied to materiality. You cannot perform experiments for the "detection" of immaterial beings.
B.- Scientific theories describe physical phenomena. Physics and science cannot describe anything extra materiality.

C.- Not science, nor reason, are incompatible with the existence of immateriality. (For more details, in example you may check the two links I provided in my last post.)

Regards,

Joel Català

(Edited by Joel Català on 4/28, 6:57am)


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Post 173

Friday, April 28, 2006 - 5:52pmSanction this postReply
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Joel Catala writes:
Objectivism rejects the existence of immaterial entities.
If you mean immaterial entities divorced from any material; i.e., any essence completely divorced from substance, then yes, Objectivism indeed rejects this concept.

Objectivism, as a rational and logical philosophy, cannot deny the existence of immaterial entities that have some form of inter-relation to material entities. In reality, there is absolutely no matter without force; no substance without essence. Force and energy are immaterial properties of substance and matter.  Take the faculty of vision, for instance. This cannot be put in a test-tube, observed extrospectively, has no shape, color or weight. Yet it is inherently evident to all who have a set of ocular organs.
Do you honestly think Objectivism as a philosophy would reject the existence of our vision?

It certainly would reject the existence of our vision - providing that one dropped the context of the means [e.g., ocular organs]. What would we have then? A "floating existence" - an ends without with which there is no means to support it?
-=pushes the big red reject button=-

And on a sidenote, here is an Objectivist site which discusses the metaphysical existence of immaterial entities:
http://www.importanceofphilosophy.com/Metaphysics_MentalEntities.html


Post 174

Sunday, April 30, 2006 - 7:54pmSanction this postReply
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Good arguments, Warren. It's obvious Joel is not well-read on Objectivism (as you've clearly illuminated).

Ed


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Post 175

Tuesday, May 2, 2006 - 3:59amSanction this postReply
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Warren, you wrote:

Joel Catala writes:

Objectivism rejects the existence of immaterial entities.
[...]

Objectivism, as a rational and logical philosophy, cannot deny the existence of immaterial entities that have some form of inter-relation to material entities. 

If by you refer to free will or consciousness, Objectivism of course cannot deny their existence.

If you mean immaterial entities divorced from any material; i.e., any essence completely divorced from substance, then yes, Objectivism indeed rejects this concept.
Objectivism does not accept the existence of any immaterial substance. This is the central point.


A first thing that happens here is that the Objectivist definitions of free will and consciousness are lame and contradictory. Objectivist definition of consciousness:


"Consciousness is the faculty that perceives that which exists."

It says nothing about the origin and attributes of this "faculty." Is it material? is it immaterial?


Now, the Objectivist "description" (not even a definition) of free will:

"[...] people do have free will."

Apparently, agreed.

"This means that they do make choices [...]"

Tautologically correct.

But now, beyond trivial definitions, problems arrive:

"There is never something created from nothing -- [...]; it is all a rearrangement of what was previously there."

This is a denial of free will: if free decisions are not created from no-thing, but "it is all rearrangement of what was previously there", how can free will be free?

Of course, this Objectivist description of free will destroys the same concept of free will. Objectivism is, according to its own distorted definition of "free will", determinist.

There is something about consciousness in the link about free will:
 
"Within the context of your mind, your consciousness is not a bunch of atoms held together in a particular way [...]."
 
Apparently, agreed (we will see later that the Objectivist position on consciousness --assuming it is a mental entity-- is inconsistent.)


Do you honestly think Objectivism as a philosophy would reject the existence of our vision?
No.

My contention is that the existence of the soul and (genuine) free will is denied by Objectivism. That was part of my point with John Armaos.


And on a sidenote, here is an Objectivist site which discusses the metaphysical existence of immaterial entities:
http://www.importanceofphilosophy.com/Metaphysics_MentalEntities.html

You will see that this side note will prove to be useful for my argument of seeing Objectivism as metaphysical materialism (i.e, "only matter really exists").



 
Again, we will content with the Objectivist definition(s) of consciousness.

 
By referencing this link, I understand that you Warren mean that Objectivism states that 
 
A.- human consciousness is a (strictly) mental entity, and that
B.- there are immaterial "mental entities."

But in this link it is not accepted the existence of immaterial mental entities, but only of material mental entities (namely, chemical reactions.)

About "mental entities" it is stated:

“Mental entities are products of chemical reactions within our brains. This is the level of abstraction that they physically exist.”
 

But what about immaterial mental entities? by omission, Objectivism denies their existence.

 

 

If points A and B are indeed advocated by Warren, then Warren is actually embracing the materialist metaphysics of Objectivism.

 

If my point A is wrong, and according to Objectivism consciousness is not a mental entity, what is it, a para-mental entity? Objectivism rejects that last, so the only remaining option is that Objectivism denies the existence of immaterial mental entities.
 

 

“The important thing is that their physical existence is different from their content."

 

But I can’t imagine how consciousness or other "mental entities" could be the "content" of electrochemical reactions. In the brain, there are only electric impulses, and no "content", namely, information.
 

What Objectivism does not tell us --it would be its self-destruction-- is that it is the mind and not the brain which establishes a conventional code for the identification of specific groups of electrochemical impulses as information.

 

The human mind requires an immaterial component to form that "mental image" --which is ultimately information. 



 

 

"A mental image of a triangle doesn't exist as a triangle in one's head, for instance.”

 

Yes. And here Objectivism has the problem: 'where' the "mental image" exists? 'Outside' the brain? Where is that information?

 

 

 

“Mental entities do exist, though, and so they have identity.”

 

Again, that cute tautology that provides us no information about the attributes of consciousness. 




As I said, Objectivism is metaphysical materialism. Let’s face it.

 

Quite differently, my position is that

 

A.- (Human) consciousness produces reactions within the brain. (Confirmed by science; accepted by Objectivism.)

B.- Consciousness is not an entity within the brain. (This is a deduction; inimical to Objectivism.)

---

C.- I reject metaphysical naturalism, which is metaphysical materialism, the Objectivist metaphysics.

 

 

Warren, more discussion will be probably unfruitful until you study the two links I provided you at the end of post #170.

 

Related to the orthodox Objectivist position of Ed Thompson and William Dwyer, honest & smart individuals (& possibly, scientists) as in example Cal and Bob Mac got the point.

 

Regards,

 

Joel Català

(Edited by Joel Català on 5/02, 7:58am)


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Post 176

Tuesday, May 2, 2006 - 8:02amSanction this postReply
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Joel,

Still aiming a bat at those tough skulls, I see.  Keep up the good work.


Post 177

Tuesday, May 2, 2006 - 8:08amSanction this postReply
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Bob,

Thanks for your kind public words.

In fact, my belligerence is not directed against the self-proclaimed Objectivists, but against that not-so-rational philosophy named Objectivism.

It's nice to see that people with no "true believer" Objectivist allegiance eventually get it.

Cheers,

Joel Català

(Edited by Joel Català on 5/02, 8:14am)


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Post 178

Tuesday, May 2, 2006 - 9:45amSanction this postReply
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Joel Catala writes:
You will see that this side note will prove to be useful for my argument of seeing Objectivism as metaphysical materialism (i.e, "only matter really exists").
I have only seen distortion and context-dropping in your use of this side-note. Indeed, it has been useful to your argument, but not in any way that is neither accurate nor honest.

From the link: http://www.importanceofphilosophy.com/Metaphysics_MentalEntities.html


The concepts of existence and identity apply even to thoughts, ideas, memories, etc. There is a difference between these entities and the physical objects around us. They don't exist in a physical form. Or more specifically, they don't exist as actual objects.
Mental entities are products of chemical reactions within our brains. This is the level of abstraction that they physically exist.
Note that it does not say: "Mental entities are only chemical reactions within our brains." Rather, mental entities are an essence which derives from substances.
This is horribly uncontroversial; no rational person I know would claim that our consciousness, memories, visualizations and dreams occur in such a way that is completely divorced from our brain. Nor do I know any rational person who would claim that we are all bodies without a mind, that all of our actions are the blind results of atomic dances in the cerebrum.

Joel Catala writes:

Objectivism does not accept the existence of any immaterial substance. This is the central point.
If by "immaterial substance", you really mean "essence", then your statement is incorrect. To make your statement correct, it would need to be rephrased with the addendum after "[essence]": divorced from any substance, because that is what Objectivism does not accept.

It is against the contradictory premises perpetrated by mystics which hold the notion of the primacy of consciousness; that consciousness is antecedent to reality, that the referenced article in the link is writing against. It is that arbitrary, irrational axiom stemming from warped epistemology and warped metaphysics, which Objectivism's metaphysical premises do not accept.

 It says nothing about the origin and attributes of this "faculty." Is it material? is it immaterial?
Consciousness is an emergent property of our brain's neural network in conjunction with our central nervous system. When you ask "Is it material? Is it immaterial?", you are refusing to recognize the false dichotomy you are perpetuating, which mankind has perpetuated for centuries. That question is a culture-wide symbol of disintegration; of man's refusal to think. Consciousness is not essence alone, or substance alone; but essence-married-to-substance.

 This is a denial of free will: if free decisions are not created from no-thing, but "it is all rearrangement of what was previously there", how can free will be free?
The contention which lies in your question is tantamount to declaring: "For One to have volition, One must not be limited by any means of cognition or surrounding environment, read: a volition that acts no-how, read: a volition which is not of this kind as against that, read: a volition which is nothing in particular, read: a volition which is nothing, read: which does not exist. This is the ideal of the same kind of argument that expounds: "Because man's knowledge is limited, it is therefore invalid on all accounts; because it is not omniscient." Or: "One must know everything in order to know anything."
Volition is not disqualified by the Law of Identity, any means of cognition or surrounding environment; rather, these are it's preconditions.


By referencing this link, I understand that you Warren mean that Objectivism states that 
 
A.- human consciousness is a (strictly) mental entity, and that
B.- there are immaterial "mental entities."

But in this link it is not accepted the existence of immaterial mental entities, but only of material mental entities (namely, chemical reactions.)

About "mental entities" it is stated:

“Mental entities are products of chemical reactions within our brains. This is the level of abstraction that they physically exist.”
 

But what about immaterial mental entities?

What about immaterial entities, you ask? Read what it says in your quote:

“Mental entities are products of chemical reactions within our brains. This is the level of abstraction that they physically exist.”
Mental entities [read: essence] are products of chemical reactions [read: substance] within our brains. This is the level of abstraction that they physically exist.

Once more, I shall point out that nowhere in Objectivism does it state: "Immaterial entities do not exist", nor "Only material entities exist". But it will dismiss this false dichotomy and state anything along the lines "essence exists in marriage with substance." And that, is the bottom line.


Post 179

Tuesday, May 2, 2006 - 10:20pmSanction this postReply
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Good try, Warren (really good). But I'm afraid it won't be useful. Joel is arguing in bad faith now (he has seen Rands own words on materialism -- I know, I quoted them to him -- yet blanks them out in order to carry on like this).

Joel, get the $20 Ayn Rand Lexicon, look up Communism (p 79), read the top entry. Remember those words? Remember those words.

Ed


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