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Post 20

Sunday, December 29, 2013 - 4:57pmSanction this postReply
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Steve,

No it surely isn't Plato --or anyone else!--to say that 'existence', 'identity' and consciousness' are axioms. Moreover, most of what is called 'philosophy'
questions 'existence', 'identity and 'consciousness.'

So perhaps what  we have is a Showgirls issue here: What's done down in Galt's Gulch sure ain't 'philosophy!

Yet to claim these three as self-evident begs the question: from where do we derive our knowledge of them--assuming of course, that we're not indulging in a wordplay. Well, to have ideas just appear without sensible proof indicates either one of two sources: Plato or Kant.

Plato says that concepts exist as 'ideen', grasped by our minds, while Kant says that the mind itself conjures up these as a matter of what the mind does. Choose one, please.

Plato justified the existence of ideas precisely because of math. Platonist-deniers would therefore do well to create an explanation for math that is Platonically-independent.--perhaps a sort of naturalism favored by Quine?

No one would disagree that our perceptions via sensory data is a starting point to create what-is based statements. In the Timeus, Plato rather famously said, 'stasi phanomen', hold on the appearences (as raw material). Thisis somewhat alalologous to Aristotle calling undifferentiated matter --prior to analysis by The Four Cause Method--'hule'.

So what's Rand saying? something self-evident--that sense data is our window-- or stunningly, that we immediately understand reality via our senses?

Without fussing over what liberals do and don't think, I believe that we've already agreed that models of oligopoly and monopoly are figments of the academic-economists' imagination, ostensibly motivateed by envy and resentment: yet another example of Platonism gone wild.

Indeed the Apple example--that people who can afford a better product usually wind up buying it-- establishes in large measure the thesis in question. Knowledge is wealth because wealthy people buy better computers that last longer, hence become more knowledgeable...(?)....(!)...

Academics, fairly dripping with mens rea, would retort that Apple is an exception that proves the rule: the Russellian black swan, as it were.

People always calculate reliability into a purchase against the ability to pay. Then again, people look at emotiional loyalties against efficiency, as in the case of Honda versus made in the USA. So yes, consumer behavior plays a large part in choice. if a producer chooses more correctly than his/he competition, wealth will occur.

Eva


Post 21

Sunday, December 29, 2013 - 5:37pmSanction this postReply
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Steve,

If you axiomatize 'existence', 'consciousness' and identity', you're saying that these concepts just appear as self-evident truths. This is as Platonic as it gets.

But most all of philosophy doesn't do this; rather, it's starting point is precisely to question what consciousness, identity and existence means.So what's done down at Galt's Gulch sure ain't philosophy by normative standards.

It really isn't necessary to 'point out' that all coherent methods of deriving truths begin with perception. Plato said as much in Timeus, "Stasi phanomen', 'We begin with appearences'.
So perhaps in this sense you're correct: for Rand, who (possibly?) believes that raw sense data gives an accurate picture of the world, and no method is necessary, is not a Platonist after all.

Yes, I've already agreed with you that talk of monopolies and oligopolies fails miserably to describe the real world. 'Just a bunch of resentful academic economics.

That more affluent customers are willing to pay more for quality completely refutes the notion that the world of commerce is highly competitive. So be it.

Eva


Post 22

Sunday, December 29, 2013 - 5:59pmSanction this postReply
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Eva,
What's done down in Galt's Gulch sure ain't 'philosophy!
Actually, it is. I take it you haven't read Rand's "Introduction to Objectivist Epistemology."
---------------

As to 'existence', 'identity' and consciousness' being "self-evident"... I wouldn't have used that term. But I'm going to say that Rand did NOT mean that in the ways that you imply she did. (Look at the very next sentence in that quote). And, it wouldn't match what she has said elsewhere. She has said that the explicit understanding of these axioms is acquired as the end product of philosophic analysis - so she did not mean self-evident in the sense that these concepts are already in our mind in their fully understood forms, nor that they are intrinsic in reality such that we take them in with our senses. And she would never agree to the concept of ideas just appearing without sensible proof. So, like I said, I wouldn't have used that phrase.
---------------
So what's Rand saying?
The answer to that is best sought in her book, "Introduction to Objectivist Epistemology." But, for our discussion here, I'll quote her again, but leave out the troubling adjective "self-evident". Do you find any significant disagreement in this form:
"Axioms are usually considered to be propositions identifying a fundamental ... truth. But explicit propositions as such are not primaries: they are made of concepts. The base of man’s knowledge—of all other concepts, all axioms, propositions and thought—consists of axiomatic concepts.

An axiomatic concept is the identification of a primary fact of reality, which cannot be analyzed, i.e., reduced to other facts or broken into component parts. It is implicit in all facts and in all knowledge. It is the fundamentally given and directly perceived or experienced, which requires no proof or explanation, but on which all proofs and explanations rest.

The first and primary axiomatic concepts are “existence,” “identity” (which is a corollary of “existence”) and “consciousness.” One can study what exists and how consciousness functions; but one cannot analyze (or “prove”) existence as such, or consciousness as such. These are irreducible primaries. (An attempt to “prove” them is self-contradictory: it is an attempt to “prove” existence by means of non-existence, and consciousness by means of unconsciousness.)" [from Introduction to Objectivist Epistemology, page 55]


Post 23

Sunday, December 29, 2013 - 7:27pmSanction this postReply
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Steve,

A thousand apologies, please, for the double post. As with my name, it seems obvious that I'm having some trouble navigating this website.For example, I've yet to figure out how to cut&paste. Right click simply doesn't work...anyway...

Rand's citation is clear: axiomatic concepts (not merely 'axioms') are basic, non-reductables. If we derive specific understanding of these through philosophical analysis, this is what we've done:

First, of course, we don't know that they're really irreductable until we've examined them. In this case, the key becomes the method by which (hypothetically postulated ) axiomatic concepts are examined. Aristotle said as much in his critique of Plato: what we can say of 'justice' is that it's linguistic use is a natural occurance because evey society employs the term, regardless of specifics.

This loops back into my Gulch comment, and your answer: is Rand examining existence, consciousness and identity, or rather is she postulating these as givens...'requiring no proof or explanation'?

Eva


Post 24

Monday, December 30, 2013 - 3:30amSanction this postReply
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Eva, I am aware of David Graeber's work, Debt: The First 3,000 Years. I mentioned it several times on my blog. See, for instance, "Debt, the Seed of Civilization" there. That said, I did not bother to pull the pins out from his citations of numismatic authorities such as Philip Grierson. I think that Graeber's thesis is worthy, even if he gets many facts wrong.
Perhaps the best citation for both markets and money (chits) would be David Graeber's 'Debt, the first 3000 years. Although his conclusions might be disagreeable, the facts he uses are mainstream anthro 101/2/3...

Of course, coined money was in use in all large 'ancient' civilizations. Caravans used these to redeem and exchange goods in places where there was no face-to-face, personal interaction.

Coins were also used to enforce tax obligation as far back as Babylonia. Oppressive states forced farmers to pay taxes not in goods, but in metal--hence, the 'money changer story from the New Testament: state-sponsored banking capitalism at work.

My first literary award from the American Numismatic Association was for an article on the origins of coinage. The nomination came from a Smithsonian curator. The article had to pass through a special review at the ANA specifically because it contradicted all of the books that they accepted as standard sources, including those by Grierson. No disrespect is intended to him and half a dozen others. The problem of the invention of coinage attracted several theories. I now regard my work as incomplete - not wrong, just missing something, and I do not know what that "something" is. No one seems to. The invention of coinage was a singular event.

The Babylonians did not have coins until 100 years after the Greeks did. The Babylonians were in eclipse at that time. Coinage was introduced to them by the Persians.

I agree that 2500 years or more before the ascendance of the Medes, debt to the temple was the basis of commerce and the impetus for the invention of writing in Sumer, some 3000 years earlier. See the works of Denise Schmandt-Besserat also touted on my blog.

I agree also with Graeber that both Marxist and Austrian economists misunderstand the evolution of money. Money did not evolve from market competition among commodities exchanged in primitive barter for profit.

Again on my blog are several articles about the importance of numismatics as the evidence of economics - of which most economists are wholly ignorant.

Aristiotle was wrong about the evolution of markets in Athens. He accepted narratives of his time which seemed like common sense explanations. Later scholars accepted Aristotle because he seemed to have been closer to the events and because he was, well, Aristotle. We are not sure how markets developed in the archaic Greek world.

The idea of an agora (a-gora: no bounds, i.e., an open place) where people meet to exchange seems peculiar to them - perhaps also to some other peoples. It was not a natural evolution in village life, but a specific insight, an invention. It seems to be true from other ancient records that coins existed in Athens in imitation of their use in Ionia and Lydia as tokens of social status. (Again, as it was noted by Graebner.) Then, the tyrant Peisistratos in a single action forced people in the marketplace to accept his coins and declared them to be common tokens of the exchange of debt, i.e., indirect barter. The people understood what he meant by what he said, perhaps because of the grammar of the language. Perhaps also, they already used their "wappenmuenze" in that way, or perhaps not. Lacking a time machine, I can only conjecture.

I note that in the Anabasis, when the Greeks were low on provisions, they tried to get some locals to set up a market where they could buy food, but the idea of bringing out their surplus and displaying it just seemed like an obvious invitation to be looted. The natives were unmonetized and had no concept of trade or exchange or barter. Again, that supports Graebner's thesis.

That brings us back once more to the topic here. What is wealth? Knowledge alone as some kind of floating abstraction is not wealth. I know a lot of stuff and I am not rich. A implies B does not mean that B implies A. Wealth does depend on knowledge more than it depends on any other factor.

Again, we look to the Sumerians who invented large numbers such as 5, 6, and 7. Numeracy led to literacy. Art as Ordered Narrative gave special status to votive objects. A thing with a name on it could not be destroyed. (Again, see the works of Denise Schmandt-Besserat.) Even five thousand of years later in Cairo of Caliphate, the reason we have the Genizah Documents of the Jewish community is that they bore the name of God as witness to contracts. Compare that to potlatch.

As you say, potlatch probably served to prevent the accumulation of status objects (surplus goods) beyond accepted social norms. As a consequence, potlatch societies produced tons of valuable, high quality goods and yet remained poor.

On the other hand, literate societies in Sumer, China, etc., were able to put that surplus to better use. The ability to record thoughts led to an explosive evolution in ideas.

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Post 25

Monday, December 30, 2013 - 2:32pmSanction this postReply
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Michael:

I never realized that basic accounting could be so controversial.

Wealth is a static concept; an accounting, a summation. A net positive asset.

Income is a dynamic concept, as is profit, as is loss.

A balance sheet is a static snapshot: assets and liabilities. It has meaning only at a point in time, like the end of a quarter or year.

A p/l is inherently over time, like over a quarter or year.

Static snapshot at beginning of period(assets/liabilities), then dynamic flows over time (income/expense/profit/loss) the static snapshot at end of period. The change in static snapshot is the intergrated summation of the dynamic flows in and out. Else, the books are f'd up.

You risk value as expense + effort to generate income. (Much value also deteriorates over time, so you also risk loss by doing nothing at all over time. One of the appeals of conversion of value into something like Gold.) So even thoiugh wealth is static, it is still generally subject to deterioration, or in some local cases, appreciation, but by and large the laws of the universe rig the game as, in total, a net loss of value over time. (The apparent endgame is a dim 3 deg K future as all universal gradient is consumed, at least, in this universe; it is just a matter of time, during which, with creative effort, it is possible to yet run up local hills and take advantage of remaining gradient. Or, do nothing, and run downhill...)

You exert effort over time, not instantaneously. As a result, your balance sheet goes up or down. If you are successful in generating more income then you spend/exert, you have realized a profit(and can increase your assets-- an artifact that is 'wealth.' If you are unsuccessful, you generate losses, and you decrease your assets/wealth and/or increase liabilities/debt.

What Gilder means, IMO, is that it takes differential knowledge as the basis for transactional commerce to generate income. (Not that, literally, you can print the Encylopeida Britannica by the millions, hand them out, and make people sleeping on their couches 'wealthy' with knowledge.)

If you immediately spend your profits as current income converted to current spending and expense them, as opposed to invest/convert to an asset, your wealth does not increase. (Your CPA and every modern piece of accounting s/w won't let you get away with such nonsense.) You simply consume all current income, and do not generate wealth. Wealth is deferred spending of current income.

If you want to apply a concrete, like Gold coin, the same applies; the accounting simply says, you can't spend the same Gold coin and also keep it as an asset. That should not be controversial fact is all I mean by 'wealth is deferred spending of current income.'

The result of net-income after expense/spending is an increase in static wealth.

But the difference between wealth and income is crystal clear when you consider government taxing policy. Wealth is a static concept, income is dynamic. You can only tax wealth once, and it is gone(it is a static element); you can tax income every year(it is recurring.) That is why goverment's tax income and not wealth. They know where the money is.

It's hard to see where the controversy comes from. But that is my bias as an engineer and businessman and "S" Corp and once Cayman's Corp.

There might be all kinds of academic theories about what wealth 'really' is, that doesn't concern me in the least; more than glad to be wrong about what wealth really is in some circles.

Someone with a gun might also steal Gold coins, and posess them. That is another issue. They still posess wealth...because they haven't yet spent the Gold coins.

They just didn't create any wealth. The knowledge to point a gun and commandeer/steal wealth is not the knowledge to create wealth. It is an example of carcass carving, not beast building. Governments do this.

regards,
Fred

PS: I know there is an alternative Marxist theory of profit: PROFIT = PRICE - COST after applying LABOR to CAPITAL. But my 25 yr old son has more actual business epxerience than Obama + Marx combined, so I find it amazing anyone would swallow that drivel. If someone seriously thinks that PROFIT is dialed up by asserting PRICE greater than COST after applying LABOR to CAPITAL, then that pretty much guarantees that they've never so much as risked running a lemonade stand, and were probably safely collecting dust at some dust bunny U for decades.












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Post 26

Monday, December 30, 2013 - 2:53pmSanction this postReply
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???

So "lower profit margins lead to increased volume times lower profit margins leads to increased wealth" means that net profits do not result in increases in wealth?

Negative profit margins are lower profit margins; they also result in increased volume, I suppose. Loss leaders, maybe, as the key to maximizing what? Total losses, as opposed to unit losses, or total profits, as opposed to unit profits?

This is where the expression "I guess they make it up in volume" comes from.

Who is it that is confused about unit profit and net income????

Oh well. Welcome to Math Nation.

No matter how you personally define 'value' -- be it the warm fuzzy glow you realize when you personally feed millions -- or the crass financial afterglow of Gold in your pocket -- when you net realize less of that value after risking effort + value, you realize loss, as opposed to profit, and your personal definition of wealth decreases; it is simply conservative accounting. A=A.

Reminds me of the folly of the 'non-profits' who proudly proclaim "We are not interested in profit." Really? Are you not interested in loss, either? What kind of special deal are you cutting with the Universe to always break even on your efforts????"

Happy New Year.

regards,
Fred

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Post 27

Monday, December 30, 2013 - 3:32pmSanction this postReply
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"The essental role of an elected government is to re-distribute wealth as viable purchasing power."

There are certainly tribes that believe that.

I've described that many times. Two fishermen leave the docks. Do they fish the deep today, or do they fish the shallows? The answer isn't the same every day, at every dock. The Universe asserts risk. And still, fishermen take on risk, in the universe, as it is.

So then one is lost at sea, and one returns with a hold full of fish. The universe and its risk has been addressed, and now there is indeed a boat load of fish at the docks. Time for the tribe to weigh in...

And he is met at the docks with peer tribesmen and politicos and economists and academics with their theories that the essential role of an elected government is to re-distribute wealth as viable purchasing power.

And after decades of this, not so many boats actually leaving the docks in the morning; if so, they are all fishing the shallows. Hope that is always the answer enough to get by... Why no; modern fishermen are all about shed risk and the socialization of risk and even, the fascist corporatism shedding of risk onto unwilling others.

And some..many? Few? How many certainly matters not to them... have found other ways to fish in this world. Because indeed, when the only ethical justification waiting for them at the docks is the brute force of numbers and 'get over it,' why, they do...in a heartbeat ... and sleep like a baby for over 30 years having done so.

Because those that fish, can and do. And those that can't, don't.

Me, not holding my breath, waiting for the crowds at the dock to catch on. Perhaps they need to be told what the essential function of government truly is? Why, any day now, there is going to be some serious redistributin going on.

Meanwhile, nobody had more frequent flyer miles to Georgetown than Ted Kennedy.

Good luck with this. Any day now, the highest grossing branch of Citi is going to march in front of the C-Span cameras and divulge the names of their clients in alphabetical order, starting with the Congressmen and Senators and former US Presidents. All part of that 'essential function of government' goodness I keep reading about.

I'll bet you this shit goes over really well on those late thursday afternoon precepts.

After what...50 years? 80 years of this pudding headed nonsense, you can't see the scoreboard? Need to spell it out in a giant crayon?

Washington DC Redskins, 99
Detroit Lions, 0

You need another 80 years of 'redistributin' to finally read the damn scoreboard?

Take all the time you need.






Post 28

Monday, December 30, 2013 - 4:15pmSanction this postReply
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What you're most likely referring to is Ricardo's formulation, not that of Marx:

C+V+P = R

Where C is constant capital
           V is labor (variable)
           P  is profit
     (=) R  is price

The emphasis here, of Ricardo, is of the inverse relationship if V and P.
Because at any one time capital investment is fixed, what's not paid in wages is retained as profit.

Marx's labor theory of value (LTV) is quite different.

Constant capital is looked upon as 'dead labor, and  Variable cost is the price of live labor.

Since in this equation, all units on the left side are 'Labor', the aggregate value is only labor--hence, LTV, as it were.

Marx's 'Capital' spends lots of time trying to transform left-side, dead labor units into quantities of labor time, in order that prices (Rt side) might be said to derive from labor.

Hence the 'transformation problem' , whose acceptance more or less determines the designation 'Marxist'

...Unless you're a Deleuzian, in which the issue of being Marxist becomes the question one asks, 'What is Capitalism"?


Post 29

Monday, December 30, 2013 - 4:19pmSanction this postReply
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As a footnote, yes, the Ricardian formulation is still in current use within Economic texts.

The assumed inverse relation between V and P is nominally used in both all labor negotiations  and the devising of tax policies whose intent is to redistribute wealth along lines of income.


Post 30

Monday, December 30, 2013 - 6:18pmSanction this postReply
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Michael,

Your money-ology backgrond sounds impressive!

If wealth depends upon knowledge more than any other factor, it's most assuredly the genre of knowledge pre-requisite to accumulating wealth.

Better said, then, that knowledge is necessary but insufficient. Lots of people are smart, but only a few are smart either in the ways demanded for wealth accumulation or possess a desire to channel their knowledge into wealth-acumulation.

That's why Deleuze wrote of capitalism as a gigantic wrestler. All of us are 'desiring machines' (a notion taken from Spinoza's 'conatus'); the channeling of desire into capitalist persuit is somewhat akin to being grabbed, and therefore not being able to do anything else.

In terms of Rand's characters, Galt willfully enters the ring. When he speaks of 'all' values being reductable to the dollar, he's obviously telescoping a wish-fulfillment.

Roarke seems more complex, as he just wants to create buildings in the name of art. then he discovers that, being all about business, his creations will ahve to be tweaked and revised by all interested parties, because this is how real capitalism works. So he becomes a 'body without organs' and destroys. In the trial (a figment of his imagination....'Good stream of consciousness, Ayn!) he gives a speech which no one in the real world would seriously believe.

The outcome is that he's learned what Galt already knew: the only way is to pursue wealth for its own sake.

My own view of 'wealth equals Knowledge equals Wealth is to stand Marx on his head (see post to Fred.), with an apology to Hamilton

Actual wealth is dead knowledge that's been accumulated. Live knowledge is potential wealth.

Therefore, combining the actual with the potential {H=1}, one obtains a knowledge theory of wealth! Or W= scalar a/p =1 x $. Whatever....

That Aristotle's discussion of Kapeleke vs Metadosis may or may not be an indication of  Athens c 325BC is an interesting question. He might have been doscussing a more traditional time, or perhaps one more appropriate to village life than in the big city.

What's important is to emphasize how different Aristotle's pov was from Rand. it's not just a few metaphysical tweeks here and there , as I understand Peikhoff to have written. let's also couple his disgust with barter with the more famous, 'Zoon politikon'.

The natural state of humans is social, interactive, and  imbedded within a group. On a related topic, this is why he insisted that ethics is what you teach children to show feelings for.

As it were, social interaction  is his first 'Axiom'. The individual is strictly contingent, developing a personal identity form the group.

In this light, to declare oneself an 'Aristotelian' while accepting Rand is as meaningful as saying I accept the resurection of Jesus as a fact because he was a nice man. Otherwise, Nietzsche is correct in saying , God is dead'.

Eva


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Post 31

Thursday, January 2, 2014 - 1:25pmSanction this postReply
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Eva:

"The natural state of humans is social, interactive, and imbedded within a group."

...under rules of interaction based on free association? Sure. In a free nation.

Corporations are indeed social and interactive and examples of free associates freely and naturally associating in a group. For profit or not.

Imbedded by force, under rules of forced association? That is the ethics of a gang rape, which is identical to pure democracy. The perps had a vote, the victim lost; no ethics beyond the brute force of numbers. Aka, National Socialism. (Why the 'National?' Co-ops and non-profits are perfectly realizable in mixed economies under rules of free association. Long may they wave. No justification except paternalistic megalomania for enforcing National Socialism on an other than free association basis.)

Forced association is what makes rape 'rape', what makes slavery 'slavery', and what makes National Socialism, Communism, etc., 'totalitarianism.'

Commerce is social and interactive; value for value. Differential knowledge is required for a successful trade in commerce(win-win.) Not just knowledge. (Illustrated: give everyone access to the full Encyclopedia Britannica; focusing only on knowledge is like claiming that economies could arise based on everyone ripping pages out of the books and trading them...) There is knowledge in such economies; there just isn't any differential knowledge. Gradients drive everything in the universe(even love); stasis is death. Especially in economies, plural. Especially in economies where some/many would rip pages, and some would read them, and some/few would comprehend and extend and apply them.

The Dust Bunny U's are overflowing with smart folks that know lots of things of little or no value to nobody else in our social, interactive, transactional world. This tends to drive them understandably nuts, and many of them end up dreaming up paradigms based on paternalistic megalomania and forced association as a consequence-- as if the purpose of their peers living in freedom was to implement their fave pet Soc. grad school theories.

We really should be throwing telethons for them, not electing them to office.


regards,
Fred

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Post 32

Thursday, January 2, 2014 - 2:43pmSanction this postReply
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Eva:

35 years ago, I was wrestling with


\rho \left(\frac{\partial \mathbf{v}}{\partial t} + \mathbf{v} \cdot \nabla \mathbf{v}\right) = -\nabla p + \mu \nabla^2 \mathbf{v} + \frac{\mu}{3} \nabla (\nabla \cdot \mathbf{v}) + \mathbf{f}

..applied to relatively -simple- complex systems, in order to calibrate elements of atmospheric models.

For largely comic relief, I would stroll into an Economics course and be entertained by things that looked like your


C+V+P = R

or

GNP = P + G + Inv + (Exp-Imp)

..that claimed to actually represent something far more complex. It always struck me as a glaring example of Feynman's 'Cargo Cult Science.' I pictured economists sneaking into the math or physics tower, hurriedly scribbling the form of something, and then scurrying off to build their grass hut control towers to wow the tribe.

Occasionally, a practitioner of the art would put more symbols into a blender and come up with a pygmy grass hut that looked more like a real control tower: Here is a glaring recent example of exactly such pure nonsense:

http://www.princeton.edu/~pkrugman/debt_deleveraging_ge_pk.pdf

Now, the point is, neither you nor I nor most of the intended audience for this show are expected to work through the math. But what any reasonable person should be able to do is, read the paper's assertions, assumptions, and conclusions.

Assertions: "We argue that this approach sheds considerable light both on current economic difficulties and on historical episodes, including Japan’s lost decade (now in its 18th year) and the Great Depression itself"

Front and center on the very first page.

Assumptions: "Imagine a pure endowment economy in which no aggregate saving or investment is possible, but in which individuals can lend to or borrow from each other. Suppose, also, that while individuals all receive the same endowments, they differ in their rates of time preference."


Not too much later on.

Before we get to the conclusions, let's make sure we understand the assertions and the assumptions:

A] The author purports that the approach in the paper in some manner reflects the realities of our economies, and

B] Those economies consist of trust fund babies that wake up everyday and receive a check(in fact, the same amount to each actor in the economies) from the trust, and no savings, production, work, or effort is required, merely a desire to lend to or borrow from each other.

If one read and comprehended that much, then is it really necessary to examine the conclusions? Because they either modeled their assumptions correctly, in which case, they've modeled a lost episode of Star Trek, or else they did not, and in either case, there is no correlation with anything going on in our economies.

But if you do plow ahead and get to the conclusions, you find posted there aggregate (ie, the economies as a whole) supply and demand curves that both have the same positive sign, and this, the author purports, represents our economies during a 'liquidity trap' (a period when the economies do not respond to the normal carrot-whip of interest rate gyrations from afar.) In words; supply-demand curves are static curves, representing a snapshot condition(not a change in conditions.) The author is saying that, at higher prices, suppliers will tend to want to supply more quantity of everything(these are aggregate supply curves.) So far, no 'topsey turvey' economics. But since the demand curve also has a positive slope, what the author is also saying is that at higher prices, consumers will tend to want to purchase more of everything.

This 'topsey turvey' result is crucial to the author's conclusions-- that lowering taxes during a liquidity trap will shrink the economies. But it is exactly that conclusion that the author -- Paul Krugman -- went out on the hustings with and beat people senseless over the head with. Nobel Prize winning Paul Krugman...pushing absolute nonsense.

And, few in this America said boo, or questioned his assertions or assumptions, or did anything other than nod along.

His results aren't -arguably- nonsense; they are nonsense. And anyone denying that is saying that "well, sure, our economies are made up largely of trust fund babies who wake up everyday to their equal daily endowment, where no savings or investment is possible, where no production or work or effort is required, and where the only factor to consider is, the relative 'eagerness' of trust fund babies to loan to or borrow from each other."

And so, to the real point; economics is not science. Economics is cargo cult science. Economics is voodoo doctors making political arguments using stolen symbology.

It is gibberish, meant to appear as math or science, seldom if ever calibrated, like real science. It is borrowed authority, meant to browbeat Math Nation into submission. State of the art economics can't even tell us what already happened or why it happened, much less, what is happening or is going to happen and why it is happening or going to happen.

There are either conservative economists, or liberal economists. The closest thing to a neutral 'economist' might be an accountant, but accountants are all about the what, not the why. Economists claim to be about the why, and ultimately, their why's are political in nature.

Where is the first shred of evidence that our government is 'running the[sic] Economy?'


Look, even something as simple as

GNP = P + G + Inv + (Imp-Exp)

isn't 'math', it is a political assertion, masked as a 'definition' of Gross National Product.

At the very least, the equation should be written as:

GNP = c1*P + c2*G + c3*Inv + c4*(Exp-Imp)


It is a -political assumption- that c1=c2=c3=c4=1.0.

It is even a political assumption that the signs of c1 and c2 are the same.

Political arguments, masquerading as mathematical 'equations' and 'definitions.'

Where has it ever been shown that c1=c2=1.0?

Where has it ever been shown that c1 and c2 have the same sign?

regards,
Fred







Post 33

Thursday, January 2, 2014 - 7:07pmSanction this postReply
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Fred,

I was citing Aristotle to show how serevely he and Rand disagreed.

That you side with Rand is fine; simply don't call your self an 'Aristotelian'.

Eva


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Post 34

Thursday, January 2, 2014 - 7:43pmSanction this postReply
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Fred,

You incorrectly attributed an equation to Marx that was created by Ricardo. 
I simply expanded it and showed you the Marxian one for good measure.

Ricardo's is considered science because it can take a numbers plug-in to obtain interesting results. As to its political assumptions, suffice to say that whatever they are, both sides accept them. 'Political' is political to the extent that a disagreed-upon coefficient will alter the results. This, with the Ricardian, is not the case.

Because my father was a student of Feynman,we grew up calling psychic mumbo-jumbo 'cargo-cult'. 'His 'Surely you're joking' quickly became  a well-read, dog-eared diversion during my high-school days.

A quick glance at the articles's subtitle indicates that it was a commencement address at Cal tech in 1974.

No where does the article mention economics. That's because the anthropology of 'cargo cults' deals with planes that never arrive. Economics. OTH, possesses far too many arrivals, depending upon assumed variables said to be causal.

Beyond debated cause, economic data offers a great del of solid information on performance which is used by those on both sides of the political fence...

The second half of the article deals with scientific integrity in all the sciences, including his own. Beyond that, I'm really not sure how a Fourrier series might be considered 'stolen symbiology' when analyzing prices over time.

Eva

(Edited by Matthews on 1/02, 7:45pm)


Post 35

Friday, January 3, 2014 - 10:28amSanction this postReply
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Eva:

You incorrectly attributed an equation to Marx that was created by Ricardo. I simply expanded it and showed you the Marxian one for good measure.

And yet, I manage to sleep at night.

You are claiming some significant difference between


PROFIT = PRICE - COST after applying LABOR to CAPITAL.

and

C+V+P = R

Where C is constant capital
V is labor (variable)
P is profit
(=) R is price


Forgive me, but you've shuffled up constant terms in a simple linear equation. Admittedly, that is the stuff of Nobel Prizes in Economics, but, well, I sleep well.

Is it a huge conceptual stretch to realize that COST includes (LABOR applied to CAPITAL)?

Yet still, shuffling those simple linear terms tries to tell a political story.

Equations usually have a bias, not always, of a left handed dependent result described as a function of a right handed set of operations or functions.

C+V+P = R is fine, but is what is meant to be implied the following?

R = C+V+P ? as in R(C,V,P) = C+V+P?

In words:

PRICE is a function of (COST,LABOR,PROFIT) defined as COST + LABOR + PROFIT

That is entirely consistent with Marx's view, along with many academics(based on his/their 0 years of actual business experience)of how markets work: a businessman works on his COSTs, LABOR, dials in a PROFIT, and that fixes the PRICE.

The accounting is fine, but the dependent/independent is messed up. The form of that equation implies that PRICE is something dependent on (C,V,P).

Another way to convey the same mathematical relationship is as follows:

P(C,V,R) = R - C - V

... subject to the requirement that there is a sale made at price R, otherwise, R=0 and P = -(C+V). (The Marxists, et al, never address risk or the mechanics of an actual trade; in Marx's case, because he never so much as ran a lemonade stand in his entire life. But this is the case for most of these academics.)

R is not something that is truly independent, else all businessmen would insert a value of 'infinity' for R. R is dependent on the market.

The form of the alternative equation implies that Profit is something that is dependent on (R,C,V) Businessmen can work on processes to minimize C and V as costs. As well, they can enhance the value of that provided, commanding a higher R. But the R is not unilaterally and independently specifiable by them without adhering to and serving the market.

The point of all that is, on a mathematical basis, the two equations

R=C+V+P

and

P = R-C-V

are totally equivalent until the aspect of dependent/independent is inferred. So, even writing the form of the simple linear relationship is a political assertion.

regards,
Fred

Post 36

Friday, January 3, 2014 - 12:44pmSanction this postReply
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Fred,

I congratulate you for having remembered the algebra well all learned in the ninth grade. Yes, indeed, the equivalinces demonstrated by the Ricardian are lots of fun!

But, no, a recitation of a circa 1830-ish equation will not win you the Nobel. So 'sorry, but you'll have to update your examples within the field of economics in order to sound interestingly ironic.

re Marx (again!):

He did, indeed , address risk in what he saw was the progressive stage of capitalism--the force that batters down the Chinese wall, etc...in Manifesto 1848. His issues were elsewhere.

re lemonade stand: by the same token, only those certified as car mechanic are qualified to teach Quantum Physics. Only they possess the experience requisite to really grasping why a slow battery charge is 'better' than running around on the freeway for half an hour.

Eva


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