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Tuesday, November 1, 2011 - 2:30pmSanction this postReply
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Carving a corpse that really needs to be put in the ground just makes no sense at all.
Is obama really that stupid or is he f ing up the country on purpose...

Post 1

Tuesday, November 1, 2011 - 4:36pmSanction this postReply
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Obama's former chief of staff stated the long-held Progressive principle that that a politician should, "Never let a good crisis go to waste." I think that the more extreme progressives want to have 'controlled' collapses of sectors in the economy that they believe will make radical transformations feasible. I believe that Obama falls in that category. With his educational background and having been a community organizer it wouldn't be possible for Obama to not be familiar with Saul Alinisky's Rules for Radicals (written for community organizer) where the key rule is that the end justifies the means, and with the Cloward and Piven's strategy which advocates overloading the existing structure to get it to collapse in order to totally transform the system. So, yes, I believe that Obama might be comfortable with a massive market collapse if he believes that it could be used to transform us into the kind of government he hungers for.


Post 2

Tuesday, November 1, 2011 - 5:16pmSanction this postReply
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Glenn Beck has been warning us to keep diaries regarding political events. He says that the rate that online government files are "becoming" inaccessible is alarming. Apparently, he has been trying to do a lot of checking up on the government, and files are getting wiped before his very eyes.

So I grabbed these nuggets from the official pdf document in Steve's linked article, just in case they pull this file from the internet, too:

Source:
http://www.ots.treas.gov/_files/25022.pdf

Nuggets:
They gave these examples of "discriminatory" behavior that will not be tolerated ...

Example: A lender offered a credit card with a limit of up to $750 for applicants aged 21-30 and $1500 for applicants over 30. This policy violated the ECOA's prohibition on discrimination based on age.
 
Example: Two minority loan applicants were told that it would take several hours and require the payment of an application fee to determine whether they would qualify for a home mortgage loan. In contrast, a loan officer took financial information immediately from nonminority applicants and determined whether they qualified in minutes without a fee being paid. The lender's differential treatment violated both the ECOA and the FH Act.
 
Example: A lender's policy is not to extend loans for single family residencies for less than $60,000.00. This policy has been in effect for ten years. This minimum loan amount policy is shown to disproportionately exclude potential minority applicants from consideration because of their income levels or the value of the houses in the areas in which they live. The lender will be required to justify the "business necessity" for the policy.
Example: In the past, lenders primarily considered net income in making underwriting decisions. In recent years, the trend has been to consider gross income. A lender decided to switch its practices to consider gross income rather than net income. However, in calculating gross income, the lender did not distinguish between taxable and nontaxable income even though nontaxable income is of more value than the equivalent amount of taxable income. The lender's policy may have a disparate impact on individuals with disabilities and the elderly, both of whom are more likely than the general applicant pool to receive substantial nontaxable income. The lender's policy is likely to be proven discriminatory. First, the lender is unlikely to be able to show that the policy is compelled by business necessity. Second, even if the lender could show business necessity, the lender could achieve the same purpose with less discriminatory effect by "grossing up" nontaxable income (i.e., making it equivalent to gross taxable income by using formulas related to the applicant's tax bracket).
And they outlined how at least 4 different agencies can go after "discriminatory" lenders for potentially-compounding sums of money, each by using their own version of a "CMP" ...

Civil money penalties ("CMPs") in varying amounts against the financial or any institution-affiliated party ("IAP") within the meaning of 12 U.S.C. & 1813(u), depending, among other things, on the nature of the violation and the degree of culpability.
The banking agencies have the authority to assess CMPs against financial institutions or individuals for violating fair lending laws or regulations. Each agency has the authority to assess CMPs of up to $5,000 per day for any violation of law, rule or regulation. Penalties of up to $25,000 per day are also permitted, but only if the violations represent a pattern of misconduct, cause more than minimal loss to the financial institution, or result in gain or benefit to the party involved. CMPs are paid to the U.S. Treasury and therefore do not compensate victims of discrimination.
 
In enforcement actions under the FH Act, CMPs not to exceed $50,000 per defendant for the first violation and $100,000 for any subsequent violation.
 
Civil penalties of up to $10,000 for each initial violation and up to $25,000 and $50,000 for successive violations within specific time frames.
 
Civil penalties of up to $10,000 for each violation; and [break] Redress to affected consumers.
I hope you folks will post comment on the examples. I'd like to hear what you think about them.

Ed

p.s. It broke my heart to read that Alan Greenspan sanctioned this document.


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Wednesday, November 2, 2011 - 6:51amSanction this postReply
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Besides the data on how the average down-payment on new home loans dropped precipitously after government intervention/regulation, I would like to see numbers regarding lending standard for these 2 metrics:

income to total debt (monthly) ~36%?

income to housing debt (monthly) ~28%?

Ed


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Post 4

Wednesday, November 2, 2011 - 7:44amSanction this postReply
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Ed, the commonly used term is "debt to income ratio" (link). A more descriptive (but clumsier) label would be "debt payments to income ratio."

I only searched a couple of minutes but found this:
"Given that the average subprime borrower during the housing boom had a debt-to-income ratio of 42%" (link).
That's well above the numbers given in the link.

The ratio is a rule of thumb and was born in the era ofmostly fixed rate mortgages. It could be abused with an adjustable rate mortgage.

(Edited by Merlin Jetton on 11/02, 11:36am)


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Post 5

Wednesday, November 2, 2011 - 10:11amSanction this postReply
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Ed,

Here is another complication. The use of some of adjustable rate mortgages and interest only for the first few years and other forms of easy-to-get-in-but-bites-you-later types of loans were made to people that a high school junior would have known couldn't handle the "later" part. What are the various debt to income ratios based upon? debt in the easy years or debt a few years down the road? And another complication is the "income" figures. Is that reported income (what later came to be known as "liar income"), or verified income (which was less and less frequently obtained)?

The lenders were under attack by multiple regulatory agencies and wacko activists with lawyers; Fannie and Freddie would buy a bag of dog turds from them, as long as it was called a "mortgage;" and so the lenders grabbed their points and passed the risk on like a hot potato.

Post 6

Wednesday, November 2, 2011 - 12:20pmSanction this postReply
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Thanks Merlin and Steve,

From Merlin's link:

A common guideline for debt-to-income ratios is 33/38.
That's an allowable housing debt/expense at 33% of your income and a total debt at 38% of your income. That is higher than the debt-to-income ratio mentioned in Steve's link (28/36) and may reflect relaxed industry lending standards from 1994 up to today [?]. Also, Merlin's link says this:

The guidelines also vary according to loan program. FHA guidelines state that a 29/41 qualifying ratio is acceptable. VA guidelines do not have a front ratio at all, but the guideline for the back ratio is 41.
So, the FHA allows for even more relaxation in the lending standard for total debt to income, but only 1% more than the (1994?) housing debt to income standard set by the industry. Either way, it is more relaxed than that originally set by the industry.

And even with this more relaxed, non-industry-set standard, average subprime borrowers -- as Merlin pointed out -- still exceeded the standard. That's thousands and thousands of borrowers getting loans that don't meet any printed/accepted standard. You have got to ask how that could happen in a market. That kind of a thing doesn't happen on its own.

Ed

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