| | The point is that the "free market value" is the value that the property would sell for if there were no project looming. If the government cannot purchase such properties at a price 'within reason of' what that free market value would be, then few such projects would ever succeed. Why? I should think that the free-market value is the price that it actually sells for, if indeed a willing buyer and seller can be found. If they cannot, then the free-market value of that particular property has yet to be determined.
Besides, if the property suddenly becomes more valuable, because a developer wants it for a very special project -- one from which he expects a big profit -- then why should it sell for the same price as it would to someone who doesn't value it so highly?
Suppose, for example, that oil were discovered on your property. Why should the oil company be able to buy your property for the same price that it would sell for if there were no oil there? Since your property has become more valuable to a buyer because of the oil discovery, why shouldn't the price be expected to increase? Why shouldn't the seller expect to receive a higher price for it than he would if there were no oil there? The situation is no different if your property is needed for an equally profitable transportation project.
In a free-market, prices are determined, not by arbitrary government fiat, but by a voluntary transaction between buyer and seller. If the transaction is coerced, the prices are not free market. They are legislated prices imposed by the government, which is precisely what eminent domain's "fair market value" amounts to -- a legislated price imposed by the government.
In any case, if an owner isn't interested in selling his property -- if he hasn't put it on the market -- then he can't be expected to accept the same price for it that he would if he were eager to sell it and were actively seeking a buyer. Anyone who is interested in buying his property under these circumstances will therefore have to offer him a higher price than someone would have to offer him if he were eager to sell it. To demand that he sell it at the same price that he would accept if he were actively seeking a buyer is patently unjust. Yet that is what the government is demanding under the rule of eminent domain.
And please don't tell me that there is a difference between private projects and government projects -- that eminent domain shouldn't be used for private ventures, only for public ones. All productive projects should be privately financed, including infrastructure. The only role that a government should have is the protection and defense of individual rights.
You have argued that big projects that require the consent of many different property owners could not be completed without coercive intervention by the government. As I've said, I don't agree that you demonstrated this to be true, but even if it were true, you wouldn't have a case, unless you want to expand the role of governmental intervention across the board.
Suppose that a developer wants to build a mall that would be a valuable asset to the community, but can't afford to complete the project without additional funding, which he can't obtain voluntarily. Would you say that people should be forced to help finance the project, because without forced contributions, the project couldn't be completed, in which case, the community would lose an important economic asset? It seems to me that the logic of your position commits you to just such a view.
And what about a military draft, or even a draft for policemen, if the military or a municipality can't find enough recruits? Given your rationale for eminent domain, on what grounds could you object to that? None as far as I can see. In short, your position commits you to a statist, not a free-market, society. You have endowed the government with the power and authority to take people's property at their arbitrary discretion. That is the clear implication of your support for eminent domain.
- Bill (Edited by William Dwyer on 9/17, 12:33am)
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