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Post 20

Saturday, October 22, 2005 - 7:15pmSanction this postReply
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Michael Marotta quotes a passage from Schwartz's essay that I omitted from my original post, viz., "[Libertarianism] repudiates the need for any intellectual foundation to explain why 'liberty' is desirable and what 'liberty' means. Anyone from a gay-rights activist to a criminal counterfeiter to an overt anarchist can declare that he is merely asserting his 'liberty'—and no Libertarian (even those who happen to disagree) can objectively refute his definition."

Of course, this isn't true. If gay-rights activists demand preferential treatment that violates the rights of others (as some gay-rights activists do), then libertarianism would reject their demands as inconsistent with individual rights. The same with a criminal counterfeiter, who by passing off counterfeit bills commits fraud, which is an indirect form of force. As for the anarchist who, according to Schwartz, "is merely asserting his liberty," it is unclear what Schwartz is referring to. If the anarchist asserts his right to violate the law, even one that protects people's rights, then it is obvious that libertarianism would not approve of his actions.

Schwartz continues, "Subjectivism, amoralism and anarchism are not merely present in certain 'wings' of the Libertarian movement; they are integral to it."

I don't know what Schwartz means by "subjectivism" or "amoralism." If he means the idea that there is no objective right or wrong, then the very fact that libertarianism considers respect for liberty to be morally obligatory and the violation of it, morally reprehensible is sufficient to refute that charge. As for anarchism's being "integral" to the libertarian movement, again, it is unclear what Schwartz means by "integral" in this context. If he means essential or indispensable, then this too is false. In fact, a truly libertarian movement is incompatible with anarchism, for the following reasons:

Insofar as anarchism sanctions the enforcement of competing and therefore mutually incompatible views of justice, it necessarily sanctions the initiation of force, because if two legal systems are in competition with each other, at least one of them must be unjust and therefore coercive. To require that both of them be allowed to operate within a civilized society is to sanction a violation of rights and to betray the very principle of liberty on which libertarianism depends. The fact that anarchists call themselves "libertarian" does not mean that they are. And although it is unfortunate that anarchists have allied themselves with the libertarian movement, that does not mean that the movement itself is illegitimate; it just means that certain non-libertarian elements are associated with it. Let's not to throw the baby out with the bath water.

Michael writes, "'Gay rights' is one of those attempts to remove restraints on political behavior. To an Objectivist or to a Libertarian, it is not a matter of forcing owners of duplexes to rent the other half to people they do not like, but answering the question, 'What is "marriage?"' given that only one's 'spouse' can tell the doctors when to pull the plug, for instance, -- and then inherit whatever estate remains. It seems that Objectivists consider answering that in favor of gay partners to be an irrational demand on metaphysical reality."

I was not aware that Objectivists oppose extending the same rights to gay partners as to married couples. Can you cite any statements by prominent Objectivists in support of your claim? My understanding of ARI's position on this issue is that the government has no business being involved in marriage, which is strictly a private issue between consenting adults.

Michael continued, "Moral restraints -- apart from political limits -- are another matter entirely. I believe that alcoholism is immoral: it is bad for you. If you want to drink yourself to an early grave, however, that is your business."

Of course, it's your business, and I have no doubt that Schwartz would agree with you. Are you seriously suggesting that he would not?!

You write, "...we suddenly find gay rights associated with "criminal counterfeiters" (is there any other kind?) and "overt anarchists" (are "covert" anarchists acceptable?). I submit that if you want to be an overt anarchist and refuse to avail yourself of government police and courts of law, that is your business. Peter Schwartz makes it his."

Again, I think you are misunderstanding where Schwartz is coming from on the issue of gay rights. I am sure that he is referring to militant activists who advocate preferential treatment for gays that conflicts with individual rights. As for refusing to avail yourself of the government police and courts of law, I presume that, according to Schwartz, you are free not to use them, but you cannot interfere with them by trying to enforce your own decisions in opposition to theirs.

Michael wrote, "Ayn Rand declaimed against rock and roll. It is mindless, drug induced, etc., etc."

Did she? I don't think so, Michael. Again, if you have references to back up this statement, I would like to see them. In fact, she stated in her writings on esthetics that no rational criteria have as yet been established for what qualifies as objectively good music.

You continue, "Anyone here on SOLO who enjoys rock and roll is engaging in evil, immoral, irrational behavior, which cannot be tolerated, sanctioned, or ultimately allowed -- at least, according to the guidelines of Peter Schwartz and the Ayn Rand Insititute."

Now, who's engaging in a smear campaign?! Criticize Schwartz and ARI if you must, but don't descend to their level, please! :-(

You wrote, "Within the context of human society, the essence of political freedom is the ability to ignore the actions of others. Denouncing taxation is one thing. Denouncing modern art is another. Not that modern art does not deserve denouncing, but that once you start with that, the next thing is that you condemn anyone who finds pleasure in it."

Excuse me, Michael, but you can't have it both ways. You say, "Not that modern art does not deserve denouncing..." and then proceed to decry its denunciation. So which is it? Either it deserves denouncing or it doesn't.

You add, "What about roller coasters and carousels? What is 'rational' pleasure -- and what must be condemned?" Where did you get the idea that ARI objects to roller coasters and carousels? The official Objectivist position on pleasure (as enunciated by Nathaniel Branden in his NBI lectures) has always been that if you enjoy it, go for it, so long as it doesn't interfere with a more important principle or value.

You write, "My point is only that within the framework of Objectivism there are those -- such as Peter Schwartz -- who are so uptight and self-controlled that they condemn others who are different from them.

"Major Premise: What I do is moral.
"Minor Premise: You do something else.
"Conclusion: You are immoral."

This is nonsense. Neither Schwartz nor his colleagues advocate anything like this. Where do you get this stuff?! Now I almost regret my initial criticism, lest it be associated with yours. :-P

- Bill


Post 21

Sunday, October 23, 2005 - 5:58amSanction this postReply
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William Dwyer is apparently a "libertarian Objectivist" or an "objectivist Libertarian."  I have no problem with that, personally, and I understand the logical derivations. 

The cause of all the words between us is that he wants to force-fit statements labeled as "Objectivist" with the general tenor of "libertarian."  On the other hand, I want to warn you that when Peter Schwartz lumps gay rights activists and counterfeiters with libertarians, he not only creates a false package deal, he reveals his essentially totalitarian nature. 

1.  When Ayn Rand denounced Nathaniel Branden, she said that if he wished to justify his new lover, then he should adhere to Existentialism as being more appropriate to his psycho-epistemology. 
 
2.  In Darkness at Noon, the communist victim of a communist purge is forced to admit to himself and to his jailers that his disagreement with certain specific policies of the party was tantamount to plotting to kill Stalin.
 
3.  With a totalitarian philosophy, once you violate one premise, you can be accused of violating all of them.

Objectivists oppose Libertarianism.
Objectivists oppose counterfeiting.
Therefore Libertarianism is equivalent to counterfeiting.

Don't ask me about the "gay rights" thing.  I have no idea what is in their heads over this.  I understand, as William Dwyer does, that being collectivists, some gay rights activists advocate laws that would violate the rights of others.  We here are all opposed to those proposals.  However, Peter Schwartz does not identify which "gay rights activists" he means.  He could have easily said "animal rights activists."  The assertion that animals have no rights is easier to prove.  But he said "gay rights" and we have to accept that he said this.  Here is an example of a "gay rights" issue. 
Court: Underage sex laws can't be harsher on gays
http://www.cnn.com/2005/LAW/10/21/sodomy.case.ap/index.html
Kansas had a "Romeo and Juliet" law that punished underage sex, but for which the punishment was about 14 months for hets and 14 YEARS for homos.  Without claiming what Peter Schwartz might have meant by what he might have said based on what we suppose he probably believes, how do you evaluate an "Objectivist" who catagorizes "gay rights advocates" with counterfeiters?

William Dwyer wrote: "Insofar as anarchism sanctions the enforcement of competing and therefore mutually incompatible views of justice, it necessarily sanctions the initiation of force, because if two legal systems are in competition with each other, at least one of them must be unjust and therefore coercive."

This is false.  It sounds technical.  However, if you apply the rules of formal logic to any statement of "insofar as" then you see that this is invalid. 

Anarchists advocate competing views of justice  Anarchists advocate the initiation of force
T                                                                                       T
F                                                                                       T
T                                                                                       F
F                                                                                       F

"Insofar as" statements are True only "insofar as" both premises are True and both premises are False.
If both are false, then we have nothing to discuss.

In claiming that both are True, Dwyer is asserting the consequence -- which is another fallacy. -- because he has failed to show how competing views of justice are the initiation of force.


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Post 22

Sunday, October 23, 2005 - 7:11amSanction this postReply
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Bill,

Michael wrote, "Ayn Rand declaimed against rock and roll. It is mindless, drug induced, etc., etc."

Did she? I don't think so, Michael. Again, if you have references to back up this statement, I would like to see them. In fact, she stated in her writings on esthetics that no rational criteria have as yet been established for what qualifies as objectively good music.
Michael's right about this one.

It's somewhat off the main topic, but Rand did slam rock music.  It was all done in the form of asides, in articles on currrent events. 

I don't have time to look up the references in her periodicals.  But if you have her articles on CD-ROM, try searching for "the even beat that dulls the senses," or the reference to the purposeless college student who does drugs and wastes his undergraduate years "listening to rock music."

Robert Campbell


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Post 23

Sunday, October 23, 2005 - 8:26amSanction this postReply
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Try "cashing in - the student rebellion"...

Post 24

Sunday, October 23, 2005 - 11:20amSanction this postReply
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Rand also took swipes at Jazz and Classical music, doesn't mean the Gestapo will be heading to your house anytime soon...matter of fact, in one of her later essays, she slammed a United Way ad with the kids saying " I like Jazz, and I like Rock, and I like such and such..."This is the United Way...". She remarked that such differences were allowed in Soviet Russia...if she didn't approve of certain things, she didn't say they would be outlawed.

Let's keep some perspective here.

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Post 25

Sunday, October 23, 2005 - 12:47pmSanction this postReply
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Mr. Campbell,

I have submitted a piece for SOLO which I hope will be published.  I show that Rand had, to a certain extent, conventional "middle class values" as shown, for example, her opposition to Woodstock.

Curiously, opposition to Jazz is quite prevalent in conservative thought, e.g. Richard Weaver.


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Post 26

Sunday, October 23, 2005 - 1:26pmSanction this postReply
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Joe,

I was just reminding Bill that Rand hated rock music and let her readers know it. I'm not signing on to Michael's implication that a hard-core Randian would want to ban rock music.

Neil,

I'm looking forward to your article. Because of Rand's anti-religious views, her stated antagonism to convention and tradition, and the post-1982 effort to separate her "philosophical" views from her "non-philosophical" opinions, many of her younger readers fail to appreciate the culturally conservative themes in her work.

Robert Campbell





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Post 27

Sunday, October 23, 2005 - 6:08pmSanction this postReply
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Did someone(s) mention jazz in connection with Objectivism/ists?

Alan Greenspan was a jazz musician (a saxophonist) back in the Good Old Days.

Leonard Peikoff, in the biographical DVD "In His Own Words," acknowledges that he loves jazz (among numerous other styles and genres).

I'm not aware, however, of any well-known Objectivists who like rock music. Perhaps some of the younger ones do -- perhaps it's a generational thing.

When I was growing up in the 50s and 60s, I drifted in and out of awareness of current popular rock music, but basically I avoided it once I finished college. Someone once asked me what I thought of rock music, and I said, "But I don't think of it." :-)

Best to all,
Roger Bissell, Post-Randian musician-writer


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Post 28

Sunday, October 23, 2005 - 6:53pmSanction this postReply
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I realize that the following discussion departs from the main subject of this thread, and probably warrants a thread of its own, e.g., "Anarchism versus Minarchism," but I wanted to respond to Michael, because his criticism alleges that my critique of anarchism commits certain formal fallacies of logic - an allegation that betrays a serious misunderstanding of the principles of logical inference. For this, I beg Robert Campbell's indulgence. :-|

I wrote: "Insofar as anarchism sanctions the enforcement of competing and therefore mutually incompatible views of justice, it necessarily sanctions the initiation of force, because if two legal systems are in competition with each other, at least one of them must be unjust and therefore coercive."

Michael Marotta replied, "This is false. It sounds technical. However, if you apply the rules of formal logic to any statement of 'insofar as' then you see that this is invalid. "

Michael then produced a "truth table" laying out certain logical conditions that he believes apply to my argument. Since I am unable to use html formatting which allows for tabs and spacing, I will reproduce his table as follows. The column on the lefthand side of the arrow contains the truth values pertaining to P, and the column on the righthand side contains the truth values pertaining to Q.

P = Anarchists advocate competing views of Justice
Q = Anarchists advocate the initiation of force

P ----> Q

T ----> T
F ----> T
T ----> F
F ----> F

He then writes, "'Insofar as' statements are True only 'insofar as' both premises are True and both premises are False. If both are false, then we have nothing to discuss. In claiming that both are True, Dwyer is asserting the consequence -- which is another fallacy -- because he has failed to show how competing views of justice are the initiation of force."

It is difficult to know where to begin in responding to Michael's attempt at logical analysis. He is analyzing my argument in terms of the material implication of modern logic, which uses truth tables to assess logical implication. There is much to object to in this conception of implication, as Brand Blanshard points out in his classic critique of analytic philosophy, _Reason and Analysis_. Implication, as it is normally understood, is strict implication, not the so-called "material implication" of modern symbolic logic, which is not implication at all, because truth-functional logic recognizes no necessary connection between the antecedent and the consequent or between the premises and the conclusion. But even if one accepts the criteria of modern logic as one's standard of analysis, Michael still doesn't get it right.

He is presuming to construct a truth table reflecting the logical form of my argument. Recall that I wrote, "Insofar as anarchism sanctions the enforcement of competing and therefore mutually incompatible views of justice, it necessarily sanctions the initiation of force..." This statement can be recast as a conditional proposition, viz., "If anarchism sanctions the enforcement of competing views of justice, then it sanctions the initiation of force," which is apparently how Michael construes it: As a conditional proposition, it is, of course, composed of an antecedent and a consequent, which are represented by the two columns in Michael's truth table.

So his assertion, "'Insofar as' statements [i.e., conditional statements] are True only 'insofar as' both premises are True and both premises are False" is nonsensical, because a conditional statement is not composed of two premises; it is composed of a premise and a conclusion or of an antecedent and a consequent. Furthermore, even if we correct his terminology, his statement is false, because (according to material implication) a conditional statement is true just so long as the antecedent isn't true and the consequent false, which means that the statement is true even if the antecedent is false and the consequent true (which underscores the absurdity of the notion of material implication that Michael is using to discredit my argument). At any rate, he continues, "If both [the antecedent and the consequent] are false, then we have nothing to discuss. In claiming that both are True, Dwyer is asserting the consequence -- which is another fallacy -- because he has failed to show how competing views of justice are the initiation of force."

~Another~ fallacy?? What the ~first~ fallacy is that he thinks I've committed, I haven't the slightest idea.

At any rate, I thought that I did indeed show how competing views of justice imply the initiation of force: I noted that 'if two legal systems are in competition with each other, at least one of them must be unjust and therefore coercive. To require that both of them be allowed to operate within a civilized society is to sanction a violation of rights and to betray the very principle of liberty on which libertarianism depends." I took it as understood that by competing views of justice I meant competing legal systems (within the same geographical area). If this was not clear, I apologize. But if Michael found my argument wanting, then it was up to him to present a counter-argument, not simply declare arbitrarily that I failed to show how competing views of justice constitute the initiation of force.

However, if he still thinks that the operation of two mutually exclusive legal systems within the same geographical area does not imply that at least one of them is coercive, I would welcome an argument in support of this. Suppose, for example, that Legal System A permits abortion, whereas Legal System B prohibits abortion. Is it not obvious that if there is such a thing as a right to abortion, System A would recognize it, whereas System B would violate it?! Extending the principle to any two laws that are incompatible, if one law is just, is not the other unjust?

Secondly, my arguing that the antecedent implies the consequent is not the "fallacy of asserting the consequence," as Michael declares. Once again, his grasp of logic fails him. The fallacy of "asserting the consequent" can be expressed as follows:

P-->Q
Q
Therefore, P

This is a fallacy, because it does not follow that if P implies Q, Q therefore implies P.

But nowhere did I say or even suggest that because the antecedent of my argument implies the consequent, the consequent therefore implies the antecedent. ~That~ would have been the fallacy of asserting the consequent, and there is nothing like it anywhere in my argument. If one is going to accuse someone of committing logical fallacies, then one should at least have a passing familiarity with the subject of logic and with the fallacies that one is invoking.

- Bill


(Edited by William Dwyer
on 10/23, 9:20pm)

(Edited by William Dwyer
on 10/23, 9:27pm)


Post 29

Sunday, October 23, 2005 - 11:01pmSanction this postReply
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Roger - you write, "I'm not aware, however, of any well-known Objectivists who like rock music."

Amy Peikoff posts to several rock fan discussions.


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Post 30

Sunday, October 23, 2005 - 11:35pmSanction this postReply
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I earlier wrote:
I'm not aware, however, of any well-known Objectivists who like rock music. Perhaps some of the younger ones do -- perhaps it's a generational thing. [emphasis added]
Adam Reed commented:
Amy Peikoff posts to several rock fan discussions.
I rest my case. :-)

Roger Bissell, Post-Randian musician-writer



Post 31

Monday, October 24, 2005 - 3:49amSanction this postReply
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William Dwyer wrote: I realize that the following discussion departs from the main subject of this thread, and probably warrants a thread of its own, e.g., "Anarchism versus Minarchism," but ...

I have a thread in Dissent called "Police Forces and Courts of Law..."  You are free to start another thread in that or another forum, of course.  In fact, I encourage you to do this or that or something else.  These issues have been hashed out many, many times here and elsewhere.  You never know when some new truth will be discovered or invented.  I am willing to take this on because historically, every time the subject of "Government vs. the Market in Protection and Adjudication" comes up among Objectivists, more people become anarchists.  The truth is on our side and any reasonable person accepts the truth.

William Dwyer claimed: 
Michael then produced a "truth table" laying out certain logical conditions that he believes apply to my argument.
 P = Anarchists advocate competing views of Justice
Q = Anarchists advocate the initiation of force
P ----> Q

That is not what I said. 

I stand by what I wrote.  I also understand what you wrote.  You misstate my statements.  As you note, the lack of good typography is a bit of a problem, but it is surmountable.  However, your misstatement of my assertion had nothing to do with the fonts involved.

Also, I agree with you that so-called "formal logic" has serious problems. I outlined some of my objections in other threads in other forums.  I was not aware of the book you cited, Reason and Analysis. Thanks for the pointer.

 If you want to argue formal logic, again, I encourage you to pick an appropriate forum and begin a well-named thread.  I will then restate what I wrote in terms that might be less confusing to you. 


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Post 32

Monday, October 24, 2005 - 12:59pmSanction this postReply
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I stated, "Michael...produced a "truth table" laying out certain logical conditions that he believes apply to my argument. Since I am unable to use html formatting which allows for tabs and spacing, I will reproduce his table as follows. The column on the lefthand side of the arrow contains the truth values pertaining to P, and the column on the righthand side contains the truth values pertaining to Q."

"P = Anarchists advocate competing views of Justice"
"Q = Anarchists advocate the initiation of force"

"P ----> Q"

"T ----> T"
"F ----> T"
"T ----> F"
"F ----> F"

Michael replied,

"That is not what I said.

"I stand by what I wrote. I also understand what you wrote. You misstate my statements. As you note, the lack of good typography is a bit of a problem, but it is surmountable. However, your misstatement of my assertion had nothing to do with the fonts involved."

Okay. Here is what you said. Now understand that when this gets posted, it will not look like your original post, because I cannot reproduce the spaces and/or tabs. You stated,

"Anarchists advocate competing views of justice Anarchists advocate the initiation of force
T T
F T
T F
F F

The sentence "Anarchists advocate competing views of justice" was over the first column of truth values, and "Anarchists advocate the initiation of force" was over the second.

You then wrote, "Insofar as" statements are True only "insofar as" both premises are True and both premises are False.
If both are false, then we have nothing to discuss."

I took it as understood that the statement, "Insofar as anarchists advocate the enforcement of competing views of justice, anarchists advocate the initiation of force" is equivalent in logical form to the conditional statement, "If anarchists advocate the enforcement of competing views of justice, then anarchists advocate the initiation of force." Do you deny this equivalency, for if you do, then you are wrong. And if you do not deny it, then I fail to see how I have misrepresented your argument. You say that you stand by what you wrote, yet you have made no effort to address my criticisms. Until you do, there is nothing more I can say. If you want to address them in another venue or on another thread, let me know where that is, and I will reply to you there. The ball is in your court.

- Bill



(Edited by William Dwyer
on 10/24, 4:46pm)


Post 33

Monday, October 24, 2005 - 5:46pmSanction this postReply
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William, goto "Police Forces and Courts of Law" in the Dissent Forum.

%="insofar as"
p   q   p%q 
T   T     T
F   T     F
T   F     F
F   F    T

John Edwards will be elected vice president insofar as John Kerry is elected president.  The statement is True when both conditions are true and also when both conditions are false.


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Post 34

Monday, October 24, 2005 - 8:24pmSanction this postReply
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Michael Marotta wrote, "%="insofar as"
p q p%q
T T T
F T F
T F F
F F T

He then stated, "'John Edwards will be elected vice president insofar as John Kerry is elected president.' The statement is True when both conditions are true and also when both conditions are false."

Yes, and (according to truth-functional logic), it's also true when p is false and q is true! Michael, do you agree that your example is equivalent to: "If John Kerry is elected president, then John Edwards will be elected vice president"? I took it as such, which is why I asked you for your agreement. You still haven't given it to me. In any case, it ~is~ equivalent. In modern symbolic logic, there are basically four kinds of truth tables: contradictory, conjunctive, disjunctive and conditional. "Insofar as" propositions are equivalent to "if-then" or conditional propositions, so they are understood as falling under a conditional truth table. But truth tables normally employ truth-functional logic, which is why I interpreted the "insofar as" proposition as subject to a conditional truth table that uses that kind of logic. And, as I say, under truth-functional logic, a conditional statement is true not only when the antecedent and consequent are both true and both false, but also when the antecedent is false and the consequent true. Viz.,

p q p-->q
T T T
F T T
T F F
F F T

This sounds counter-intuitive, I know, so let me explain the reasoning behind it. Using your example, suppose it were false that John Kerry were elected president, but true that John Edwards were elected vice president. This might occur if Kerry were killed in an automobile accident, were replaced with Joe Lieberman, and Lieberman won the election. Then it would be false that Kerry is elected president, but true that John Edwards is elected vice president. Would that make the conditional statement, "If John Kerry is elected president, then John Edwards will be elected vice president" false? The answer is no, because it could still be true that IF John Kerry were elected president, John Edwards would be elected vice president. According to truth-functional logic, the only time a conditional statement is false is when the antecedent is true and the consequent false.

Now, I don't agree with the way truth-functional logic uses "implication," but when you introduced an analysis of my argument using truth tables, I thought that you did agree with it. In any case, I still don't see how your analysis of my argument (in terms of truth-functional logic) impugns its validity. Where is the logical fallacy in asserting that "If anarchists advocate the enforcement of competing views of justice, then they advocate the initiation of force"? Inquiring minds want to know! :-)

At any rate, I will do as you suggested and go to "Police Forces and Courts of Law" in the Dissent Forum.

- Bill

Post 35

Tuesday, October 25, 2005 - 9:19amSanction this postReply
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Making a good argument is not the same thing as proving the truth.   
Michael, do you agree that your example is equivalent to: "If John Kerry is elected president, then John Edwards will be elected vice president"? I took it as such, which is why I asked you for your agreement. You still haven't given it to me.
I never will. 
As defined in formal logic, "p insofar as q " is equivalent to "(p and q) or (not-p and not-q)."  That is all there is to it.  If you do not understand that, then you might not have enough textbooks, or you might not understand the ones you have, or perhaps something else, but in any case, you are arguing against a strawman of your own devising.


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Post 36

Tuesday, October 25, 2005 - 2:44pmSanction this postReply
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Michael,

Perhaps you wouldn't mind telling me what the difference is between "P insofar as Q" and "P if Q". I see absolutely no logical difference between them. To use your example, suppose I say, "John Edwards will be elected vice president insofar as John Kerry is elected president." Am I not saying that "John Edwards will be elected vice president if John Kerry is elected president"? Or suppose I say, "Insofar as Socrates is a man, Socrates is mortal." Is this not the same as saying, "If Socrates is a man, then Socrates is mortal"?

At any rate, back to the original topic. I was just rereading Schwartz's, "Libertarianism, the Perversion of Liberty," in which he presents the following analogy: "Imagine a group of physicians forming an umbrella organization in order to promote health in a society infected by disease. But, not wishing to be overly restrictive, they refuse to establish any basic principles. There are many avenues to health, they say; there is no need to take a position on ~why~ human health is desirable, or what values and premises the science of medicine presupposes - that could prejudice one's opinion against those who hold opposite premises. We just care about achieving health, they say; we don't care why people join us. Imagine further that as they go around lecturing on the importance of health, they are accompanied on the podium by Christian Scientists, faith healers and witch doctors. They too support the value of "healing" - the physicians say - it does not matter why they do so or what they mean by it. After all, this is just a question about "grounding," not about the doctrine of health itself; so why care whether health is attained by exorcising demons inside one's body, or by following objective medical principles? It's all "health."

This analogy is applied to the Libertarian movement which welcomes anyone with an interest in promoting liberty, no matter what their reasons are. Schwartz quotes Walter Block, who states: "There must ~not~ be more to our Libertarian movement than its disembodied ideology - its nonaggression principle. Any sort of additional 'animating ideal' or 'spirit' will only needlessly, and ~unjustly~, force true Libertarians to leave."

Question: Does anyone here agree with Block? And if so, how would you answer Schwartz's criticism? Does the proper grounding for the principle of liberty need to be an integral part of the Libertarian movement, or is this something that we can dispense with?

- Bill

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