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Post 340

Thursday, November 10, 2005 - 11:41amSanction this postReply
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Isn't it a common error in these discussions to not qualify whether we're talking about psychological determinism or determinism in general?

rde
Been in this one before.


Post 341

Thursday, November 10, 2005 - 11:42amSanction this postReply
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Bill: If a man--a woman too!--makes a choice can he--she!--be said to be in control of his--her!--determinism to any extent? Is there any thing that isn't determined? If nothing resides outside the deterministic construct, can we not say that the ideas of determinism vrs. free will are sub-categories of determinism which might be valid?

--Brant


Post 342

Thursday, November 10, 2005 - 12:53pmSanction this postReply
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(Edited by John Dailey on 11/10, 12:58pm)

(Edited by John Dailey on 11/10, 1:21pm)

(Edited by John Dailey on 11/10, 1:29pm)

(Edited by John Dailey on 11/10, 1:36pm)


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Post 343

Thursday, November 10, 2005 - 1:25pmSanction this postReply
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Rich Engle wrote: "Isn't it a common error in these discussions to not qualify whether we're talking about psychological determinism or determinism in general?"

I don't recall using the word "psychological determinism." I did use the word "psychological freedom" but only to distinguish that kind of freedom from physical freedom or political freedom. In other words, by "psychological freedom" I simply meant free will (in its classical sense) - i.e., the freedom to choose either of two alternatives under the precisely same conditions. I'm not sure what "psychological determinism" would mean, unless it means determined by psychological rather than physical factors. In that case, however, it would not be distinguished from determinism-in-general but would simply be one version of the latter concept.

- Bill


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Post 344

Thursday, November 10, 2005 - 2:30pmSanction this postReply
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Brant wrote, "Bill: If a man--a woman too!--makes a choice can he--she!--be said to be in control of his--her!--determinism to any extent?"

Do you mean to ask, if anyone makes a choice, can he be in control of the factors determining his choice? Not of the factors determining his choice at the time he makes it. For example, if I choose an action that furthers my survival because I love my life, I am in control of the action I choose, but not of the pro-life value on which it is based.

You ask, "Is there any thing that isn't determined?"

No. I agree with Objectivism that all non-human action is determined, and (by the law of identity) disagree with it that human action is an exception to that principle. Quoting H.W.B. Joseph in his An Introduction to Logic, "To assert a causal connexion between a and x implies that a acts as it does because it is what it is; because, in fact, it is a. So long therefore as it is a, it must act thus; and to assert that it may act otherwise on a subsequent occasion is to assert that what is a is something else than the a which it is declared to be... [T]o suppose that the same cause--other things being equal--can have different effects on two occasions is as much as to suppose that two things can be the same, and yet so far their attributes different... [S]o far as things are qualitatively the same they have the same attributes, and so far as conditions precisely the same in kind recur, they must, if there is such a relation as cause and effect at all, have the same effect... [T]he interpretation of freedom which could make a man's acts undetermined by his character has been rejected for the very reason that they then would not be his, and that if he might indifferently do or forbear an act, no matter what his character was, he would be nothing in particular." (pp. 408-410)

You continued, "If nothing resides outside the deterministic construct, can we not say that the ideas of determinism vrs. free will are sub-categories of determinism which might be valid?"

I don't think so, because in that case, these sub-categories wouldn't make any sense, unless you were to define "determinism" and "free will" differently. If everything is determined, you can't say that there are some things that are not. You could argue, as the "compatibilists" have, that the term "free will" should not be restricted to choices that are undetermined - that it should apply to choices that are simply uncoerced or uncompelled, so that to say, "He did it of his own 'free will'" would simply mean that he was not forced to do it. But, as far as I can see, that is the only way in which you could meaningfully include "free will" under a determinist metaphysics.

- Bill


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Post 345

Thursday, November 10, 2005 - 3:19pmSanction this postReply
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Michael Moeller wrote, "Bill, if one is not born with values and they are not products of the choice to think, then how do they get there? You mean to say that as soon as a baby is born, reality thrusts them into his head, like when the infant sees his mother?  There is some sort of automatic recognition?"

Well, I'm not a pediatrician or pediatric psychologist, so I don't know the specific physiological or psychological factors that predispose a baby to suckle at his mother's breast, but I'm pretty sure it isn't "the choice to think."

He continued (somewhat pessimistically), "And, henceforth, all value judgments are nothing but a series of propagations from these "antecedent value judgments" and all subsequent choices to think are a slave to these? Good lord, that doesn't say much for the process of discovering one's values."

Ever see how curious infants and young children are. There's a natural curiosity - an abiding interest in investigating their environment and discovering what it's all about. As a child grows, he eventually becomes aware of the choice to think, to focus his mind, and to direct his thought processes, and he exercises that choice in accordance with the value that he places on it. It is through this process of self-direction as well as the influence of his environment, upbringing and education that he discovers his conceptual values and the moral principles by which to guide his life. None of this is incompatible with determinism.

- Bill


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Post 346

Thursday, November 10, 2005 - 3:52pmSanction this postReply
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Don't we have free will because we live in a determined universe?
 In order to exercise our free will, our actions must have the potential to effect the outcome of events. Our actions cannot effect an event outcome unless there is a cause-effect relationship.
Cause-effect is determinism.


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Post 347

Thursday, November 10, 2005 - 3:58pmSanction this postReply
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Bill,
"[Quoting Brant]You ask, "Is there any thing that isn't determined?"

No. I agree with Objectivism that all non-human action is determined, and (by the law of identity) disagree with it that human action is an exception to that principle."

Then you are essentially asserting that 'determined' is the same thing as 'caused'.

We can agree that there are no exceptions to the Law of Causality, as there could not be since it is a form of the Law of Identity.

But, according to Objectivist theory (which is correct on this point), human action consequent from the exercise of free will is not an exception to the Law of Causality, but an instance of it. (See Branden's lecture on Free Will in the Basic Principles of Objectivism lectures.)

It's sounding more and more as if the only kind of 'free will' you would agree to call by that name is the sort where every 'choice' is a purely random whim having no causal antecedents whatever. It's also clear that you have misunderstood the Objectivist theory.

And now I truly am done.

Jeff

(Edited by Jeff Perren on 11/10, 5:27pm)


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Post 348

Thursday, November 10, 2005 - 5:02pmSanction this postReply
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Jeff Perren wrote, "We can agree that there are no expections to the Law of Causality, as there could not be since it is a form of the Law of Identity.

"But, according to Objectivist theory (which is correct on this point), human action consequent from the exercise of free will is not an exception to the Law of Causality, but an instance of it. (See Branden's lecture on Free Will in the Basic Principles of Objectivism lectures.)

"It's sounding more and more as if the only kind of 'free will' you would agree to call by that name is the sort where every 'choice' is a purely random whim having no causal antecedents whatever. It's also clear that you have misunderstood the Objectivist theory."

Have I? Consider Peikoff's discussion in OPAR:

"There can be no intellectual factor which makes a man decide to become aware or which even partly explains such a decision [emphasis added]: to grasp such a factor, he must already be aware. For the same reason, there can be no motive or value judgment which precedes consciousness and which induces a man to become conscious. The decision to perceive reality must precede value judgments. Otherwise, values have no source in one's cognition of reality and thus become delusions. Values do not lead to consciousness; consciousness is what leads to values.

"In short, it is invalid to ask: why did a man choose to focus? There is no such 'why.' There is only the fact that a man chose: he chose the effort of consciousness, or he chose non-effort and unconsciousness." (pp. 59-60)

But if it is invalid to ask, why did a man choose to focus?--if there is no such "why"--then there is no cause of his choice to focus. So much for free will as being an instance of the law of causality!

Furthermore, if Peiikoff's claim were true, then the decision to perceive reality could not be judged as a moral imperative, in which case, one could not be held morally responsible for making it. Prior to consciousness or value judgments, there is no way for a person to know that he ought to perceive reality. Nor could such an act even be viewed as a "choice" or 'decision," since that would imply a conscious recognition of alternatives and a prior evaluation of their relative merits.

- Bill



Post 349

Thursday, November 10, 2005 - 4:35pmSanction this postReply
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If all is determined, then why are we talking about free will? Is it because we are in "control" of the discussion, but not free to drive it over the cliff?:-) Could it be why these discussions go on forever? But why does the determinist care so dearly about our free will misconceptions? Some of us have been determined to have them, some not. For the determinist, isn't it all, really, beyond logic? Beyond reason? And W.D. has yet, really, to refute Nathaniel Branden because there is one epistemological hurdle W.D. cannot undercut with all his "logic": He can't prove jack. 

--Brant


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Post 350

Thursday, November 10, 2005 - 6:29pmSanction this postReply
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Even the most uneducated nitwit can see that Rand's position of the Argument from Intimidation is correct.

Pianoman


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Post 351

Thursday, November 10, 2005 - 7:26pmSanction this postReply
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OK, I bonked you enough to give you the 3rd Atlas thingie.

SATISFIED???

Actually, your latest post was very funny.

Post 352

Thursday, November 10, 2005 - 7:33pmSanction this postReply
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Bill:
    I have a question..

    Given: the choice to-exert-the-effort to think or avoid the effort, or, re-phrased, to accept-the-worth-of-paying-attention to what's-perceived-as-needed-now...or accept-the-worth-of-paying-attention to what one-desires-to-now, (ie: be rational, or not), a value-set 'determines' which way the 'choice' is going to go, correct? In that case, we're talking about at least 2 different presumed-as-competing value-set-influences/pressures, with only 1 getting actualized priority that 'determines' the decision 'chosen' by the controlling agent, correct? --- So far, the losing set seems to always be considered irrelevent...even during the 'choice'. But, during the 'choice', it HAS to be relevent.

     My question is: what (pre-?)'determines' which value-set gets the priority of being the 'determining' control-set for the 'choice'? Especially since the 'choice' (or value-set priorities) might change, not only in days, but even hours...or maybe even minutes?

     I ask this because I believe that Rand's ref in Galt's speech (I can't quote it here) re the "choice to think" being an ongoing, never-stopping, decision-making-process is one that these 'determining' value-sets are chronically in competition over...in us choice-makers who control what we do.

     Thoughts?

LLAP
J:D.


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Post 353

Thursday, November 10, 2005 - 8:28pmSanction this postReply
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Bill writes:
 Well, I'm not a pediatrician or pediatric psychologist, so I don't know the specific physiological or psychological factors that predispose a baby to suckle at his mother's breast, but I'm pretty sure it isn't "the choice to think."


That's ok, Bill, because you don't need to be a pediatrician or pediatric psychologist to recognize that a reflex like suckling or a knee-jerk is  not cognition.  There are no "psychological factors" that give man automatic knowledge, which is precisely what you are demanding here in order to justify your position.  That is the dead-end of determinists--they have no grounds to justify their position and thus try to make an appeal to automatic knowledge or "instinct" or "reflex" or some such variant (in this case we have the "suckling" of infants and the "natural curiosity" of children). 

The reason the position dissolves this way is that if one had to think (any particular), then one is not "free" to test and justify his theories, including the theory of determinism.  All are the inevitable outcome of factors outside one's control where one "can only report that they are helpless to believe otherwise" (NB in "The Contradiction of Determinism"). 

NB further indicates the absurdity of such a position when he writes: "Their [the advocates of determinism] beliefs are no more subject to their control than a lunatic's.  They and the lunatic are both equally the pawn of deterministic forces.  Both are incapable of judging their judgments." ("The Contradiction of Determinism").  For your sake, Bill, I hope you are in a better position to control the functioning of your consciousness than the man who believes the moon is made out of green cheese.  (Oh no, here come the word games regarding "control".)

Bill writes:
As a child grows, he eventually becomes aware of the choice to think, to focus his mind, and to direct his thought processes, and he exercises that choice in accordance with the value that he places on it.
AR explicitly addresses this point in the new book "Ayn Rand Answers" (pg 134):
...once you've acquired the rudiments of reason, you focus your mind consciously and volitionally.  But how do you learn to focus it originally?  In the same way an infant learns to focus his eyes.  He is not born with eyes in focus; focusing his eyes is an acquired attribute, though, it's done automatically. (I'm not sure whether it's entirely automatic; but from what we can observe, no volition on the infant's part is necessary.)  Why does he learn to focus them?  Because he's trying to see--to perceive.  Similarly, an infant or young child learns to focus his mind in the form of wanting to know something--to understand clearly.  That is the beginning from which a fully conscious, rational focus comes.
But that focus, at any given moment, is self-initiated and sustained by a process of choice. We don't need to to retreat into speculations about the consciousness of infants and children--Jeff was completely correct when he said that free-will is self-evident through introspection.  I'm certain, Bill, that my choice to focus and the subsequent choice to write this post were not the result of suckling at my mother's breast when I was an infant.  Sorry.

What disturbs me most about your position is that it amounts to a frontal assault on one's values, which are not the product of one's full, volitional consciousness but instead flow from a chain of "antecedent factors" that begin with robotic "reflexes".  Pure rubbish.

Regards,
Michael

(Edited by Michael Moeller on 11/10, 8:32pm)

(Edited by Michael Moeller on 11/10, 8:53pm)


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Post 354

Thursday, November 10, 2005 - 11:00pmSanction this postReply
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John Dailey wrote, "Given: the choice to-exert-the-effort to think or avoid the effort, or, re-phrased, to accept-the-worth-of-paying-attention to what's-perceived-as-needed-now...or accept-the-worth-of-paying-attention to what one-desires-to-now, (ie: be rational, or not), a value-set 'determines' which way the 'choice' is going to go, correct?"

Well, I wouldn't say that the choice is rationality versus irrationality, because if one truly believed that a choice was irrational, one wouldn't consider it worth choosing. One could perhaps characterize it as one of need versus desire, if by "need" one is referring to longer-range values, and by "desire," shorter-range values. But in that case, one would simply weigh the relative merits of the two alternatives (i.e., the costs and benefits) and decide which is most worth pursuing.

- Bill

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Post 355

Friday, November 11, 2005 - 1:30amSanction this postReply
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I wrote, "Well, I'm not a pediatrician or pediatric psychologist, so I don't know the specific physiological or psychological factors that predispose a baby to suckle at his mother's breast, but I'm pretty sure it isn't 'the choice to think'."

Michael Moeller replied, "That's ok, Bill, because you don't need to be a pediatrician or pediatric psychologist to recognize that a reflex like suckling or a knee-jerk is not cognition."

Well, I wouldn't say that suckling is simply a reflexive action, like a knee-jerk. In any case, you didn't say that the values you were referring to had to be cognitively arrived at. Had you done so, I would not have used that as an example.

You continued, "There are no 'psychological factors' that give man automatic knowledge, which is precisely what you are demanding here in order to justify your position."

Who said anything about "automatic knowledge"?? My point was that children are naturally curious and that their knowledge is arrived at by a process of investigation and discovery along with the education they receive at home and in school.

You continue, "That is the dead-end of determinists--they have no grounds to justify their position and thus try to make an appeal to automatic knowledge or "instinct" or "reflex" or some such variant (in this case we have the "suckling" of infants and the "natural curiosity" of children)."

I was simply giving examples of the kind of factors that contribute to one's development from an early age. I also mentioned the child's own decision to focus his mind and to direct his thinking.

You wrote, "The reason the position dissolves this way is that if one had to think (any particular), then one is not "free" to test and justify his theories, including the theory of determinism. All are the inevitable outcome of factors outside one's control where one "can only report that they are helpless to believe otherwise" (NB in "The Contradiction of Determinism")."

First of all, why can't you be determined to test and justify your theories, including the theory of determinism? It makes no more sense to say that you cannot test your theories for being determined to test them than it does to say that you cannot walk down the street for being determined to walk down the street. Secondly, as I've taken such pains to point out, the fact that one is determined to choose a particular action does not mean that one is not in control of it. See my example of the driver who "controls" his car by keeping it on a narrow mountain road, despite having no desire to drive it off the road and over the cliff. He can be said to "control" his car, even though he could not have driven it any differently under the circumstances.

You continue, "NB further indicates the absurdity of such a position when he writes: "Their [the advocates of determinism] beliefs are no more subject to their control than a lunatic's. They and the lunatic are both equally the pawn of deterministic forces. Both are incapable of judging their judgments." ("The Contradiction of Determinism").

This doesn't follow. I clearly have no choice but to accept the ideas that I regard as true and valid (however correct or mistaken they may be in reality), but that doesn't mean that I have no control over which ideas I accept and which I reject. I do indeed have control over them, but my control is based on my perception of what is rational and true. In this respect, I am determined to accept those ideas that make sense to me and to reject those that do not. For example, since capitalism makes sense to me and socialism does not, I cannot choose to reject capitalism in favor of socialism. I have no choice but to believe in capitalism so long as it appears to me to be the more rational of the two systems. Moreover, if I've formed a judgment based on what I believe to be true, what reason would I have to "judge" that judgment, unless I had some basis for doubting its validity or some new evidence causing me to question its truth? But if I had a basis for doubting its validity or questioning its truth, I would be no less inclined to re-evaluate it under a model of determinism than I would be under a model of free will. So I fail to see how determinism is incompatible with judging one's judgments.

You wrote, "For your sake, Bill, I hope you are in a better position to control the functioning of your consciousness than the man who believes the moon is made out of green cheese. (Oh no, here come the word games regarding "control".)"

When we say that a "lunatic" has no control over the functioning of his consciousness, we don't simply mean that he lacks free will; we mean that he lacks the ability to think rationally. As far as your remark about "the word games regarding 'control'," I view that as a veiled argument from intimidation, especially since you've made no effort to address the content of my position on that point.

I wrote: "As a child grows, he eventually becomes aware of the choice to think, to focus his mind, and to direct his thought processes, and he exercises that choice in accordance with the value that he places on it."

You replied, "AR explicitly addresses this point in the new book "Ayn Rand Answers" (pg 134): ...once you've acquired the rudiments of reason, you focus your mind consciously and volitionally. But how do you learn to focus it originally? In the same way an infant learns to focus his eyes. He is not born with eyes in focus; focusing his eyes is an acquired attribute, though, it's done automatically. (I'm not sure whether it's entirely automatic; but from what we can observe, no volition on the infant's part is necessary.) Why does he learn to focus them? Because he's trying to see--to perceive. Similarly, an infant or young child learns to focus his mind in the form of wanting to know something--to understand clearly. That is the beginning from which a fully conscious, rational focus comes. But that focus, at any given moment, is self-initiated and sustained by a process of choice."

I largely agree with this statement, as I don't think it is incompatible with determinism, which allows for self-initiated action as well as for choice. The only place I would question Rand's statement is at the very end, where she says, "that focus, at any give moment, is self-initiated and sustained by a process of choice." If this means that you must choose to sustain it at any given moment, then I'm not so sure I would agree, although there are certainly times when you do have to make that choice.

You continued, "We don't need to to retreat into speculations about the consciousness of infants and children--Jeff was completely correct when he said that free-will is self-evident through introspection."

Here I would disagree. I don't think it's self-evident through introspection. It is true that we have the experience of making choices--of choosing one alternative rather than another--but that process should not be confused with free will, which is the ability to choose differently under the same conditions. After all, what would it mean to experience free will--to experience the ability to choose differently under the same conditions? It would mean that we've observed ourselves choosing differently under the same conditions. That would be an experience of free will, but it is clearly one that we will never have, since we will never again find ourselves in precisely the same conditions. At the very least, we will have changed psychologically. The sense in which we could have chosen differently under the same conditions may also arise, because we can imagine ourselves doing so. But to imagine such a choice is not to experience it. Imagination and experience are two very different things.

You write, "I'm certain, Bill, that my choice to focus and the subsequent choice to write this post were not the result of suckling at my mother's breast when I was an infant. Sorry."

Of course, they weren't the proximate result of your doing so, which is what your comment suggests that the determinist is saying. But he says no such thing. He does, of course, say that these activities are the remote result of your doing do so, but there's nothing paradoxical about that, because according to determinism, the action that you take today is the result of every antecedent factor leading up to it.

You add, "What disturbs me most about your position is that it amounts to a frontal assault on one's values, which are not the product of one's full, volitional consciousness but instead flow from a chain of "antecedent factors" that begin with robotic "reflexes". Pure rubbish."

Look, Michael, one's early responses, although they are links in the causal chain leading up to one's present choices, have no direct bearing on those choices in the way that you are suggesting. According to determinism, one forms one's values based on one's understanding of what choices and actions are rational or appropriate. There is no "frontal assault" on one's values here.

- Bill

Post 356

Friday, November 11, 2005 - 8:57amSanction this postReply
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Bill writes:  "Well, I wouldn't say that suckling is simply a reflexive action, like a knee-jerk. In any case, you didn't say that the values you were referring to had to be cognitively arrived at. Had you done so, I would not have used that as an example."

Bill, earlier you stated that one's actions, "including the choice to think", are determined by one's values.  Then I asked you where the value-judgments come from--if they are not the result of thinking, they are a result of what?   In answering, you proceeded to make meandering statements about "expressing his values" through such things as "suckling" and rambled on about "the influence of education, upbringing and environment"; thus implying that values were externally thrust into one's head. 

I know that you didn't explicitly state that it is the result of "automatic knowledge", but that is the dead-end of your reasoning.  Anyway, I will ask the question again point-blank, how does one come to value (What is good for me?) if it is NOT the result of the choice to think?

Bill writes: "In this respect, I am determined to accept those ideas that make sense to me and to reject those that do not. For example, since capitalism makes sense to me and socialism does not, I cannot choose to reject capitalism in favor of socialism.  I have no choice but to believe in capitalism so long as it appears to me to be the more rational of the two systems."

Yes, Bill, but in order for it "to make sense to you", you first have to exercise your capacity to think.  Reality does not impose this choice on you (as you imply), it stems from your evaluation of the facts, which stems from your choice to think.  Reality does not talk to your perceptions, saying: "Look, capitalism is the more rational of the two systems." You must discover this by first exercising your capacity to think.

Bill writes:  "First of all, why can't you be determined to test and justify your theories, including the theory of determinism?"

Bill, because you HAD TO, you could not have believed otherwise, i.e. it was determined.  In regards to your driver example, you are trying to cash-in on the hidden premise that one has a desire to stay alive.  Yes, he could have driven it differently, he could have driven it off the cliff as many people who have committed suicide have done.  Bill, whatever "downstream" choices one makes are the result of the choice to think or not--that's the whole argument.  You are also equivocating on "control" and "determine" in order to try and make your argument work.

Bill writes: "...but that process should not be confused with free will, which is the ability to choose differently under the same conditions."

First, Bill, let's be clear what free-will is from the Objectivist perspective.  In Galt's Speech, AR writes:  "...that which you call 'free will' is your mind's freedom to think or not, the only one you will have, the choice that controls all the choices you make..."  You are trying to cash-in on the progression of time and the fact that things change, but this is irrelevant to whether--when facing reality at any given point in time--one choses to think or not. 

In your attempt  to introspect and argue about the "experience of free will" and "imagination" is a product of your choice to think--you are reaffirming the fact of free will through denial (i.e. it is self-evident).

Bill writes: "Look, Michael, one's early responses, although they are links in the causal chain leading up to one's present choices, have no direct bearing on those choices in the way that you are suggesting. According to determinism, one forms one's values based on one's understanding of what choices and actions are rational or appropriate."

Yes, Bill, I fully understand the determinist's position on this.  I was pointing out the absurdity of the position by tracing back the "antecedent factors"; and I was fully aware that you would probably try to hide somewhere closer in the progression of "antecedent factors" by attributing a choice to something that is "proximate".  What you don't get is that one's "understanding of what is rational" is derived from the primary choice to think--you are trying to circumvent this.

Bill writes:  "I view that as a veiled argument from intimidation, especially since you've made no effort to address the content of my position on that point."

Maybe I should have be more explicit in order to stay on thread.

Regards,
Michael

EDIT:

PS.  Determinism compatible with capitalism?  Hah!!  So the Marxists were wrong all these years on that as well--it seems like you got another battle on your hands.

(Edited by Michael Moeller on 11/11, 9:26am)


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Post 357

Friday, November 11, 2005 - 10:21amSanction this postReply
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Michael wrote, "I will ask the question again point-blank, how does one come to value (What is good for me?) if it is NOT the result of the choice to think?"

I'm not saying that none of what you value as good for you is the result of the choice to think. Obviously, many of your values are. I'm not denying that. But don't you also have to value the choice to think itself? Why would you choose to think if you didn't consider it a value--if you didn't regard it worth choosing? Are you saying that you choose to think without valuing that choice? And if you are not, then whence comes the value that you place on the choice to think?

I wrote: "In this respect, I am determined to accept those ideas that make sense to me and to reject those that do not. For example, since capitalism makes sense to me and socialism does not, I cannot choose to reject capitalism in favor of socialism. I have no choice but to believe in capitalism so long as it appears to me to be the more rational of the two systems."

Michael replied, "Yes, Bill, but in order for it 'to make sense to you', you first have to exercise your capacity to think. Reality does not impose this choice on you (as you imply), it stems from your evaluation of the facts, which stems from your choice to think. Reality does not talk to your perceptions saying: 'Look capitalism is the more rational of the two systems.' You must discover this by first exercising your capacity to think."

I agree. My point was only that the content of your beliefs is determined by your understanding (or misunderstanding) of the evidence for them. So, whether your choice to think is free or determined should have no bearing on the reliability or trustworthiness of your conclusions.

I asked, "why can't you be determined to test and justify your theories, including the theory of determinism?"

Michael replied, "Bill, because you HAD TO, you could not have believed otherwise, i.e. it was determined."

Let me see if I understand you. You're saying that if I were determined to test and justify my theories, I could not have tested and justified them, because I had to?? I don't get it. What am I missing?

You continue, "In regards to your driver example, you are trying to cash-in on the hidden premise that one has a desire to stay alive. Yes, he could have driven it differently, he could have driven it off the cliff as many people who have committed suicide have done."

But you're missing the point of the example. The point is that since the driver didn't want to commit suicide and had no reason to, he couldn't have done so; yet, we can still say that he controlled the direction of the car in accordance with his goal, which was to arrive at his destination. Similarly, a person who wants to arrive at true ideas, not false ones, can be said to control the direction of his thinking in accordance with his goal, which is to arrive at the truth, even though he could not have chosen otherwise, since he had no reason to.

You continue, "Bill, whatever "downstream" choices one makes are the result of the choice to think or not--that's the whole argument."

Okay, I'll buy that: Our subsequent choices are determined by our prior choice to think or not to think. That's not something I would have any reason to object to.

You add, "You are also equivocating on 'control' and 'determine' in order to try and make your argument work."

This is an arbitrary assertion. It won't do simply to assert that I am equivocating; you need to justify that assertion.

I wrote, "...but that process should not be confused with free will, which is the ability to choose differently under the same conditions."

First, Bill, let's be clear what free-will is from the Objectivist perspective. In Galt's Speech, AR writes: "...that which you call 'free will' is your mind's freedom to think or not, the only one you will have, the choice that controls all the choices you make..." You are trying to cash-in on the progression of time and the fact that things change, but this is irrelevant to whether--when facing reality at any given point in time--one choses to think or not."

I'm not clear on the point of your reply. Are you denying that free will is the ability to choose differently under the same conditions? My point was that you can't know simply by introspection that you could have chosen otherwise. Are you denying this? Are you claiming that you can know this by introspection?

You write, "In your attempt to introspect and argue about the 'experience of free will' and 'imagination' is a product of your choice to think--you are reaffirming the fact of free will through denial (i.e. it is self-evident)."

You've lost me here, Michael. What do you mean, I'm reaffirming the fact of free will through denial? Care to elaborate?

- Bill

Post 358

Friday, November 11, 2005 - 10:47amSanction this postReply
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Bill, before I move forward, I need you to clarify your position.  First you wrote:

 The fact that all chosen action - including the choice to think and any subsequent thought processes - is determined by one's values...
Now you write:
 I'm not saying that none of what you value as good for you is the result of the choice to think. Obviously, many of your values are.
So which is it?  Are values the result of your choice to think or is your choice to think determined by your values?

Regards,
Michael


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Post 359

Friday, November 11, 2005 - 12:39pmSanction this postReply
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Michael wrote, "Bill, before I move forward, I need you to clarify your position. First you wrote: 'The fact that all chosen action - including the choice to think and any subsequent thought processes - is determined by one's values... Now you write: 'I'm not saying that none of what you value as good for you is the result of the choice to think. Obviously, many of your values are.'
So which is it? Are values the result of your choice to think or is your choice to think determined by your values?"

Some values determine your choice to think, and other values are determined by your choice to think. Since you have to value a choice in order to make it, you have to value the choice to think in order to make it. But, once it is made, that choice determines your thinking and your thinking can then determine certain other values.

- Bill
(Edited by William Dwyer
on 11/11, 12:41pm)


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