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Post 60

Wednesday, February 1, 2006 - 10:08amSanction this postReply
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You may call an abstract notion objective, while it doesn't depend on a particular mind. Everyone who applies Peano's axioms correctly will arrive at the true proposition that 2 + 2 = 4. But this doesn't in itself refer to the real world. It may of course be applied to the real world, for example I see there 2 cows and somewhat further another 2 cows, and I conclude that there are 4 cows in the meadow. But that is a subjective statement when it can't be independently verified. Perhaps I make an error in thinking that over there are 2 cows, a third one may be obscured by one of the other ones. The logic may be impeccable and universal, but the conclusion isn't. Similarly for the "cogito ergo sum" statement: "cogito" refers to the person who makes that statement, it is dependent on that particular mind. Now what for one person is a contradiction will also be for another person a contradiction, but the elements of that contradiction are subjective knowledge, and that means that the conclusion based on that contradiction is also subjective knowledge.

Post 61

Wednesday, February 1, 2006 - 10:25amSanction this postReply
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Cal:

     Let's see: first I go by 'weird' definitions, where I clearly specified *my* meaning/use of the terms 'objective'/'subjective' in a non-ambiguous context, then I exercise an 'equivocation' in asking how the consensus-definition you say that you think you go by would apply to a person/subject where you now agree that the terms are used in more than one sense (ie: context.) Your clarification of your preferred def looks little different from my original 'weird' explanation/contextual-definition.

Ed:

     Yes, I'm aware of the subtlety in Cal's preferred def. I was asking her that if she was taking it non-contextually literally rather than taking it as being broadly applicable enough to encompass *my* definitional context.. Ah, well...

LLAP
J:D


Post 62

Wednesday, February 1, 2006 - 12:10pmSanction this postReply
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John:
Let's see: first I go by 'weird' definitions, where I clearly specified *my* meaning/use of the terms 'objective'/'subjective' in a non-ambiguous context, then I exercise an 'equivocation' in asking how the consensus-definition you say that you think you go by would apply to a person/subject where you now agree that the terms are used in more than one sense (ie: context.) Your clarification of your preferred def looks little different from my original 'weird' explanation/contextual-definition.
Well, of course I agree that the term 'objective' can be used in more than one sense. I gave the definition that I use, and Ed seems to agree with that definition (post 51). Then you ask me: "if you always take 'objective' to mean 'independent of minds', then, what meaning would there be to saying that someone is 'objective'?", which is a meaningless question, as you're now using the word "objective" in a different sense. Nowhere I said that I always take 'objective' to mean 'independent of minds', it can for example also mean "of, relating to, or being the case of a noun or pronoun that serves as the object of a verb". Should I ask you therefore "if you always take 'objective' to mean [whatever your definition is] what meaning would there be to saying that something is an objective noun? What would be the point?


Post 63

Wednesday, February 1, 2006 - 12:22pmSanction this postReply
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Cal wrote,
You may call an abstract notion objective, while it doesn't depend on a particular mind. Everyone who applies Peano's axioms correctly will arrive at the true proposition that 2 + 2 = 4. But this doesn't in itself refer to the real world.
Oh, yes it does! It refers to the fact that any two things plus any two other things equal four things. All abstract propositions that have factual referents refer to the real world. 2 + 2 = 4 refers to the real world, because it refers to the fact that two things plus two things equal four things.
It may of course be applied to the real world, for example I see there 2 cows and somewhat further another 2 cows, and I conclude that there are 4 cows in the meadow. But that is a subjective statement when it can't be independently verified.
What do you mean by "independently verified"? Independently of what?
Perhaps I make an error in thinking that over there are 2 cows, a third one may be obscured by one of the other ones. The logic may be impeccable and universal, but the conclusion isn't.
One can also make errors in addition, but that doesn't mean that the laws of arithmetic are not objective, i.e., demonstrably true.
Similarly for the "cogito ergo sum" statement: "cogito" refers to the person who makes that statement, it is dependent on that particular mind. Now what for one person is a contradiction will also be for another person a contradiction, but the elements of that contradiction are subjective knowledge, and that means that the conclusion based on that contradiction is also subjective knowledge.
What do you mean by "subjective knowledge." What is added to the term "knowledge" by the term "subjective"? And what to you would constitute objective knowledge? Or is knowledge, according to you, necessarily subjective, because it inheres in a subject, i.e., a knower? In that case, I see nothing to be gained by adding the qualifier "subjective." All it does is muddy the waters by suggesting that "subjective knowledge" is not really knowledge -- not really a grasp of objective reality -- because it lacks objective proof or justification.

- Bill

Post 64

Wednesday, February 1, 2006 - 4:28pmSanction this postReply
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Bill:
Oh, yes it does! It refers to the fact that any two things plus any two other things equal four things. All abstract propositions that have factual referents refer to the real world. 2 + 2 = 4 refers to the real world, because it refers to the fact that two things plus two things equal four things.
No, no, no, mathematics does not refer to reality, it is purely abstract reasoning. That doesn't mean that mathematical concepts may not have originally been derived from empirical observations, but those concepts are abstractions that no longer refer to their empirical origins. Further, mathematics is of course an indispensable tool for physics, but one shouldn't confuse the abstract theory with its applications.
What do you mean by "independently verified"? Independently of what?
Independently of that particular observer.
One can also make errors in addition, but that doesn't mean that the laws of arithmetic are not objective, i.e., demonstrably true.
True, but not relevant. The laws of arithmetic are demonstrably true while they don't refer to reality. But someone who uses these laws in a correct way to describe something in the real world may still arrive at an incorrect conclusion while his perception of reality is subjective and may not be correct, and that is the point of this whole discussion: the logic may be correct and it is universal, but it doesn't guarantee that the conclusion is correct.
What do you mean by "subjective knowledge." What is added to the term "knowledge" by the term "subjective"? And what to you would constitute objective knowledge? Or is knowledge, according to you, necessarily subjective, because it inheres in a subject, i.e., a knower? In that case, I see nothing to be gained by adding the qualifier "subjective."
I've discussed the meaning of "subjective" and "objective" elsewhere in this thread, so I won't repeat it here.
All it does is muddy the waters by suggesting that "subjective knowledge" is not really knowledge -- not really a grasp of objective reality -- because it lacks objective proof or justification.
Subjective knowledge may in many cases be good enough - we don't need constant proof that everything in our direct environment is really there and is what it seems to be. But in some cases the distinction becomes important, for example in witness testimony, especially when the stakes are high, and in science, where in general independent verification of the outcome of an experiment is considered to be necessary before the results may be accepted, especially when those results are unexpected. Do we readily accept the conclusion that some experiment shows the existence of a paranormal phenomenon? Extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence, and the evidence of one particular researcher (or even a small group of researchers) is not deemed enough, independently obtained evidence is an absolute necessity in this case to determine whether the subjective knowledge is also objective knowledge.

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Post 65

Wednesday, February 1, 2006 - 5:24pmSanction this postReply
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What you are describing is a concrete-bound mindset with floating abstractions

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Post 66

Thursday, February 2, 2006 - 2:50pmSanction this postReply
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Cal:
...as you're now  [re post # 61,, I presume]  using the word "objective" in a different sense.

      In the 1st place, I didn't 'use' it. I referred to it's use in my original 'normative' definition linked in post #41 to another thread where I clearly defined the 'sense' I meant, which you thence called 'weird' because different from your dic-ref. You now argue that *I * changed *my* meaning (rather than that you normatively-clarified yours to a 'sense' that matched something akin to my original.)

     I can see that there'll be little useful dialogue 'tween us on much.

     "You may have the last word."

J-D

(Edited by John Dailey on 2/02, 2:54pm)


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Post 67

Friday, February 3, 2006 - 10:43amSanction this postReply
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Cal, in post 47 you gave a def'n of objectivity ...

====================
objective - Something is objective insofar as it is independent of either a particular mind or minds altogether.
====================

... but, back in post 36 you had stated ...

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If the mind arrives at a conclusion that is not backed up by independent observation, this conclusion is subjective.
====================

... and that brings up the following contradiction ...

If objectivity is to be taken to be independent either of minds altogether, or of any PARTICULAR mind (the opposite is to be dependent on a particular mind, to the exclusion of other minds -- ie. that which can ONLY be known by one mind), then "backed-up independent observation" is NOT necessary for something to be objective.

Independent confirmation then, while aiding the progress of science, is not required for objectivity -- and, if it were, that would be what Rand called social metaphysics (it's "true" if most folks say so).

Ed


Post 68

Friday, February 3, 2006 - 10:53amSanction this postReply
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Another way of saying that is that the minimum requirement for "objective" knowledge (which is just the redundant: "true" knowledge) -- is a single human mind.

All that is required for this "true everywhere" objective knowledge (like the "everywhere true" knowledge that mountains are larger than molehills, or that round squares can't exist, or that thinkers are always beings that do exist -- I could literally go on for hours and hours and hours, but I won't) is for a single mind to have discovered it.

Ed


Post 69

Friday, February 3, 2006 - 11:17amSanction this postReply
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Yup - that is especially so on an island wherein ye be the only mind there.....

Post 70

Friday, February 3, 2006 - 1:36pmSanction this postReply
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And you had better be objective there, or you will die.

Post 71

Friday, February 3, 2006 - 8:57pmSanction this postReply
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Right, RM & RR!

Ed


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Post 72

Friday, February 3, 2006 - 10:40pmSanction this postReply
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I wrote that the proposition "2 + 2 = 4" refers to the fact that any two things plus any two other things equal four things. All abstract propositions that have factual referents refer to the real world. 2 + 2 = 4 refers to the real world, because it refers to the fact that two things plus two things equal four things.

Cal replied: No, no, no, mathematics does not refer to reality, it is purely abstract reasoning.

Cal, what do you think the abstraction "person" refers to? It doesn't refer to itself, right? So what is it's referent? The abstraction "person" refers to any and every person. The same is true of the abstraction "society," which refers to any and every society. So, the abstraction "two" would refer to what? It would refer to any and every instance of two--to two apples, two oranges, two persons, etc. There is no such thing as pure "two," that is not two something, any more than there is such a thing as a pure person, who is not someone in particular.

That doesn't mean that mathematical concepts may not have originally been derived from empirical observations, but those concepts are abstractions that no longer refer to their empirical origins.

They don't refer just to their empirical origins. If I observe that two people, John and Mary, have something in common as against two dogs, say, and from that observation form the abstraction "person," that abstraction doesn't refer just to John and Mary; it refers to every other person as well. But the referent of the abstraction "person" is still particular persons; it is not the abstraction "person." The referent of an abstraction is not the abstraction itself; it is the various instances of the abstraction.

Further, mathematics is of course an indispensable tool for physics, but one shouldn't confuse the abstract theory with its applications.

But a theory is a theory about something--about what actually happens under a given set of conditions. The theory pertains to concrete reality--to the theory's various applications.

What do you mean by "independently verified"? Independently of what?

Independently of that particular observer.

Okay, but then it's also possible to verify something non-independently right? In other words, the particular observer himself can verify it, just as well as someone else can.

One can also make errors in addition, but that doesn't mean that the laws of arithmetic are not objective, i.e., demonstrably true.

True, but not relevant. The laws of arithmetic are demonstrably true while they don't refer to reality. But someone who uses these laws in a correct way to describe something in the real world may still arrive at an incorrect conclusion while his perception of reality is subjective and may not be correct, and that is the point of this whole discussion: the logic may be correct and it is universal, but it doesn't guarantee that the conclusion is correct.

Okay, but you're not saying, are you, that this leads to epistemological skepticism? You would still grant that we can have certain knowledge of empirical facts, just as well as we can have certain knowledge of abstract relationships, right?

Subjective knowledge may in many cases be good enough - we don't need constant proof that everything in our direct environment is really there and is what it seems to be. But in some cases the distinction becomes important, for example in witness testimony, especially when the stakes are high, and in science, where in general independent verification of the outcome of an experiment is considered to be necessary before the results may be accepted, especially when those results are unexpected. Do we readily accept the conclusion that some experiment shows the existence of a paranormal phenomenon? Extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence, and the evidence of one particular researcher (or even a small group of researchers) is not deemed enough, independently obtained evidence is an absolute necessity in this case to determine whether the subjective knowledge is also objective knowledge.

Knowledge is knowledge, regardless of how many or how few people hold it. Fifty million Frenchmen can be wrong, and one genius can be right as he stands against a multitude of true believers, who "independently" condemn him as a heretic. Yes, extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence, but that evidence can be available to a single individual; it doesn't need to be duplicated or verified "independently" by others in order to qualify as knowledge. The distinction that you're making between "subjective" and "objective" knowledge is bogus. Knowledge is the correct identification of the facts of reality, period. It does not require independent verification by others.

Now, obviously, if someone says that he ran an experiment and proved X, then unless I, as a fellow scientist, can duplicate the results, I'm not going to believe him. Nor should a layman who has no specialized knowledge of the subject, if other reputable scientists cannot duplicate it. But that's a different issue; it's an issue, not of what can count as knowledge, but of what can reasonably be believed by those with no specialized knowledge or understanding of the issue.

- Bill



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Post 73

Friday, February 3, 2006 - 10:55pmSanction this postReply
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Extremely well said, Bill.

Ed
[good to see your picture (and your extended profile -- which makes us more "kindred" than I had imagined -- too]


Post 74

Saturday, February 4, 2006 - 12:35pmSanction this postReply
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A lot of me-tooing here...

The confusion seems to be that you apparently think that a subjective notion can't correspond to an objective fact. As I said in an earlier post: "subjective knowledge may in many cases be good enough - we don't need constant proof that everything in our direct environment is really there and is what it seems to be", and that isn't surprising as it otherwise would be impossible to survive. While my knowledge of that pen lying on the table here is subjective knowledge, I can be quite confident that if I want to know whether it's also an objective fact, that the outcome will be that it is an objective fact, so why bother? It is my experience that has taught me that my subjective knowledge in general seems to be quite reliable. But that doesn't mean that it's always reliable, and in that case the distinction between subjective and objective knowledge becomes important, as in the case of unfamiliar phenomena or ephemeral events where a wrong conclusion might have grave consequences.
Independent confirmation then, while aiding the progress of science, is not required for objectivity -- and, if it were, that would be what Rand called social metaphysics (it's "true" if most folks say so).
A non sequitur, as "independent confirmation" is not the same as "most folks say so". Consensus is needed, but not arbitrary consensus of the greatest number. On the other hand, what we generally call objective knowledge isn't necessarily true when we're talking about knowledge about the real, physical world, as all our knowledge about the real world is tentative knowledge. We might therefore distinguish "objective in the strong sense" (that what is really independent of a human mind, "the physical world") and "objective in the weak sense", "our best guess based on current knowledge of what the physical world is". I realize now that the definition of "objective" that I'd adopted is incomplete in that sense (or at least not explicit enough), and therefore may cause confusion. I'd like to amend it by distinguishing "something that is independent of a particular mind" (objective in the weak sense - the examples I've discussed earlier, and what we in daily life call "objective") and "something that is independent of minds altogether" (objective in the strong sense), which may be divided into two subcategories: 1. the real physical world and 2. the abstract world of logic and mathematics. Objective knowledge of the latter subcategory is possible, but not of the first subcategory, we can only approximate it by objective knowledge in the weak sense.

Post 75

Saturday, February 4, 2006 - 12:35pmSanction this postReply
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Bill:
Cal, what do you think the abstraction "person" refers to? It doesn't refer to itself, right? So what is it's referent? The abstraction "person" refers to any and every person. The same is true of the abstraction "society," which refers to any and every society. So, the abstraction "two" would refer to what? It would refer to any and every instance of two--to two apples, two oranges, two persons, etc. There is no such thing as pure "two," that is not two something, any more than there is such a thing as a pure person, who is not someone in particular.
I see you have the naive view of mathematics of a high-school student, just like Rand who IIRC thought that mathematics was all about measurement. In mathematics "two" is not about anything, it is a purely abstract construction, which doesn't refer to anything in the physical world, in contrast to the abstraction "person". You may apply this abstract construction to the physical world, for example when you're counting cows, but there is no such thing "two" in the physical world, in contrast to the abstraction "person", which does have concrete realizations.
But a theory is a theory about something--about what actually happens under a given set of conditions. The theory pertains to concrete reality--to the theory's various applications.
Definitely not! Mathematics is not about concrete reality, you shouldn't confuse the applications with the thing itself.

Post 76

Saturday, February 4, 2006 - 12:44pmSanction this postReply
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John:
I can see that there'll be little useful dialogue 'tween us on much.
Maybe you're right. I think one of the reasons is that your style of writing is so dense and cryptic that I often can't make head or tail of it. Perhaps others have no problem with it, but English isn't my native language, which may be the reason that I don't seem to be able to grasp what you really want to say.

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Post 77

Saturday, February 4, 2006 - 2:00pmSanction this postReply
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Cal, How am I supposed to have a dialogue with you, if you ignore my arguments and simply repeat your previous responses? I said that since the abstraction "Two" does not refer to itself, it refers to any and every instance of two, just as the abstraction "person" refers to any and every person. You reply by simply repeating your original assertion, and in the process, insulting me (and Rand). You write,

I see you have the naive view of mathematics of a high-school student, just like Rand who IIRC thought that mathematics was all about measurement. In mathematics "two" is not about anything, it is a purely abstract construction, which doesn't refer to anything in the physical world, in contrast to the abstraction "person". You may apply this abstract construction to the physical world, for example when you're counting cows, but there is no such thing "two" in the physical world, in contrast to the abstraction "person", which does have concrete realizations.

We are talking about the referent(s) of the abstraction. Obviously, there is no such thing as pure "two" in the physical world, which is the very point that I made in my previous reply (in case you hadn't noticed!); neither is there such a thing as an abstract person in the physical world.

But perhaps a different analogy will help to illustrate the point. There is no such thing as (pure) red in the physical world; there are only red existents, but that does not mean that the abstraction "red" does not have an existential referent; it refers to the color possessed by any and every red existent. Similarly, the abstraction "two" refers to the quantity possessed by any and every set of two existents. So my question to you, once again, is: If the abstraction "two" does not refer to anything in the real world, as you claim, then what does it refer to? I sincerely hope you're not going to tell me that it refers to a Platonic archetype in another dimension! :)

- Bill



Post 78

Saturday, February 4, 2006 - 2:20pmSanction this postReply
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In case anyone is interested in the Objectivist theory of mathematics, here are four articles in The Intellectual Activist, which discuss it in depth:

1) "The Foundation of Mathematics" by Ronald Pisaturo and Glenn D. Marcus (July 1994, Vol. 8, No. 4)

2) "The Foundation of Mathematics, Part II" by Pisaturo and Marcus (September 1994, Vol. 8, no. 5)

3) "Mathematics in One Lesson" by Pisaturo (September 1998, Vol. 12, No. 9)

4) "Mathematics in One Lesson--Conclusion" by Pisaturo (October 1998, Vol. 12, No. 10)

- Bill

Post 79

Saturday, February 4, 2006 - 2:20pmSanction this postReply
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Cal, what you are calling objective ("the wise experiences of the many"--as opposed to a single experience of the few) -- I call Intentional Conceptualism (which entails concepts "about" things, being present in 2 minds at the same time -- and that's how we can even talk to one another and understand).

We can talk about common things, and understand. But commonality is not a philosophical justification (because wrong reasoning can sneak in). Indeed, the mere presence of the Flat-Earth Society (hundreds of adults sharing a common view) drives a stake through the heart of commonality-as-justification.

Philosophical objectivity is possible if you think straight about common experience. Scientific objectivity, something that depends on philosophical objectivity, is harder to arrive at -- as it requires special technology & expertise and, often (in my experience), the scientist possessing this expertise, will harbor contradictory premises. Examples available upon request.

Ed


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