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Post 0

Wednesday, December 20, 2006 - 3:41amSanction this postReply
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The first and probably only rule of an objectivist economic system is: "All transactions are permitted which do not involve the use of force or fraud by either consenting party on either consenting party."

This is my understanding in its most general form.

Is the name "capital"ism appropriate for such a system?

Let us ignore for a minute the fact that the institutions dealing with capital and its flow and management are an inevitable outgrowth of allowing such freedom to men. Let us focus on the fact that the growth of these institutions is NOT the primary objective of such a system - the primary objective is to allow man the exercising of his rights as man.

I came across this question when I tried to describe such a system to a non-objectivist friend of mine. His definition of capitalism differs from mine, and when I tried to explain to him how I viewed capitalism, he told me that he agreed with the system, but disagreed with the nomenclature, and gave the reason I posted above.

Post 1

Wednesday, December 20, 2006 - 5:14amSanction this postReply
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Genuine personal liberty requires private property rights.  Without the right to produce and dispose of property freely, one cannot even pursue the sustenance of his own life freely via food, clothing, shelter, etc.  All private property amounts to capital as noted in Merriam-Webster as "net worth" or "a store of useful assets or advantages."

Note the abolition of private property in the opposing system of communism.

Yes, capitalism aptly names a system of completely private property ownership, the cornerstone of liberty.


Post 2

Wednesday, December 20, 2006 - 6:13amSanction this postReply
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I agree with Aneesh: it's a terminology by nonessentials. I am ambivalent about it.

Post 3

Wednesday, December 20, 2006 - 6:16amSanction this postReply
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Since capital is the factor of production that is most directly the creation of human intelligence, I don't find the label "capitalism" a "definition by non-essentials" at all. The capitalist system is the one that is most consonant with, and the most rewarding to, the creative use of the human mind.

Post 4

Wednesday, December 20, 2006 - 6:24amSanction this postReply
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I regard the term as indicating the economic aspect only of the system that upholds individual rights. Which makes it appropriate in many contexts, that's all.

Post 5

Wednesday, December 20, 2006 - 9:13amSanction this postReply
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How would you describe the merchants of times and places before 18th century NW Europe and its colonies?  Thales of Miletos exemplified the spirit of his times when he speculated in olive press futures contracts.  By the same token, do you call Aristotle an Objectivist, or a proto-Objectivist?  Would Thales and all the other merchants before Adam Smith be called proto-capitalists because they did not have a consistent theory predicated on the law of identity?

Some libertarians repeat the false claim that the word "capitalism" was invented by socialists.  Last summer, I took a class in American history and found "capital" and "capitalist" in 18th century common writings -- John Adams's letters and diaries for instance.

Capitalism means making money from money, i.e., putting your wealth to work, not just holding on to it, but investing it, as if --
-- and here is the origin of the word -- you were tending a herd.  "Capital" refers to the "head" of something ... cap as in hat... der Kopf... captain...  mostly in early times a head of sheep or a head of cattle.  In fact, the word for money comes from pecu (pecuniary) and PECU is the same word as FEE (in German das Vieh = the cattle) --[P -> F as in Pater Father and C -> H has in cortus heart].  But in earlier Latin, the word root "pecu" could apply to sheep as well as to cattle.  So... having walked all the way around the barn on that one... --
A capitalist is a different kind of merchant.  He does not just sell things.  Again, this is from the McCullough biography of John Adams, looking for huge loans for the new American government, Adams goes to Dutch "capitalists" -- he does not call them bankers --  men who would invest in a new enterprise, the United States of America.

Of course, in the truest sense, we are all capitalists.  We all seek to grow our wealth by investing it, but that is really a personal matter.  I mean, you might be doing just that, but you only see yourself "becoming a doctor" or some other occupation. 

One problem with the definition of capitalism or any ism is that it often means "rule of society by..."  Feudalism, monarchism, communism, fascism, they are all social philosophies.  Capitalism is "the rule of society by those who own the tools of production."  In the information age, I guess that would be anyone with a laptop, palm pilot, gameboy, ipod, or cellphone...

Then, there are ideologies ("philosophies") like hedonism and positivism, and nominalism, and monism, etc., etc. 

It seems like a semantic argument.  Is a highlighter a pen?


Post 6

Wednesday, December 20, 2006 - 9:53amSanction this postReply
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In an interview in the 1970s, Nathaniel Branden recalled making this same point to Rand.  "Capitalism" came about in the 19th century as a smear term (or so he believed, but see #5), so why use it instead of, e.g., "the free market"?  As I recall Branden's account, her answer expressed the same deliberate contentiousness that led her to use "selfishness" when "egoism" or "self-interest" would do.  I'm inclined to agree that it's a good term, remembering that economic activity is fundamentally wealth-creation, an intellectual activity in the ways Rand pointed out.
(Edited by Peter Reidy on 12/20, 10:31am)


Post 7

Wednesday, December 20, 2006 - 2:37pmSanction this postReply
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MM:
 Capitalism is "the rule of society by those who own the tools of production." 
That definition is certainly offensive to Objectivists and is inaccurate.Capitalists own the tools of production but they emphatically don't rule society because of it. Laissez-faire capitalism is typified by lack of rule.


Post 8

Wednesday, December 20, 2006 - 2:59pmSanction this postReply
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Quite true - to rule is to coerce... to trade is to voluntarily exchange.....

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Post 9

Wednesday, December 20, 2006 - 5:19pmSanction this postReply
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Just as the term 'liberal' has been stretched from meaning liberty (non-coercion) to meaning socialism (coercion by a ruling class), so the term 'capitalism' has been stretched from meaning ownership (non-coercion) to meaning merchantilism (coercion by a ruling class). 

Orwellian word-stretching is at the root of authoritarianism.  Lying about the meaning of words is the easiest way to defend against any logical refutations of irrational positions promoting aggression against the harmless.

It appears, on this planet, that as soon as a good is named, its name will be dishonestly applied to evil. 



Post 10

Wednesday, December 20, 2006 - 8:58pmSanction this postReply
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John,

It appears, on this planet, that as soon as a good is named, its name will be dishonestly applied to evil. 
Such is the nature of evil -- to take note of the good in the world, and then figure out a sinister way to dismiss it. It's a "Toohey" phenomenon.

The more good that good looks, the more evil that evil looks. Evil inherently prefers the grey, not the black and white.

Ed


Post 11

Wednesday, December 20, 2006 - 9:03pmSanction this postReply
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And not far behind such evil is the "tolerance and diversity" [thought] police to make sure you obey. :-S

-- Bridget

Post 12

Thursday, December 21, 2006 - 7:10amSanction this postReply
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I prefer the term individualism.

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