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Post 140

Monday, June 4, 2007 - 2:14pmSanction this postReply
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Bill:

But the relevant meaning of "individual" here is an individual person, not individual piece of protoplasm, which is what a zygote is at the moment of conception. In any case, (some) Objectivists are quite aggressive in their definition of "individual person," which they define as a separate human being whose existence is created at the moment of birth. This is a direction that avoids "granting power to the mob" over the mother herself -- a direction that protects her individual rights from encroachment by the mob.

"At the moment of birth" as it is, is a much more concrete concept, an objective milestone.   If that is the standard for 'individual', that is much less wisy-washy than '1st trimester,' which I think is a relatively arbitrary milestone.

There is a major milestone at conception, and there is a major milestone at birth.   I didn't say 'concrete' because in fact, both 'conception' and 'birth' are a little blurry or else that would imply no reason for the thread title.    Just as there can be a 'partially born' fetus/infant, there is a fertilized egg after conception and prior to implantation, that is not yet viable; IMO, taking a 'morning after pill' that prevents implantation is responsibly cancelling the deal before the deal is closed and is barely yet contraception, not abortion.   What leaves the body is cells on the way to nowhere, not cells on the way to an individual.   What a women yet does to her body to prohibit or reject hypothetical successful implantation of cells she is not even aware exist stops the clock before it has begun.   What a women and doctor, ie, others do after implantation is not just to her body, it requires a targeted act of aggression, and is specifically aimed at a specific individual process on its way to becoming an individual.  We just disagree on the existence of a temporal bias in evaluating that.  

There are several million lessor milestones between conception and birth and several more million milestones after.   I don't think there is any objective basis to focus on a lessor milestone than one of the above two.  Conception/birth, as blurry as they might be in the details, are yet far more concrete milestones than any other.

I think culturally, the milestone used to be much more readily accepted as 'at birth,' but for whatever reason(or lack of reason), folks are just uncomfortable with the idea of terminating a life "minutes" from birth.  I think because suddenly, the temporal bias is not so great as to be a shield from what it is we are actually doing.

But, we shouldn't be wishy-washy about this.   If birth, then birth.  If not, then conception.   But for anyone to take up a position 'somewhere' in between is basically trying to push off the truth to far beyond some comfortable temporal bias, without changing the truth of the matter.  It's like saying spatially, "I can't justify the obliteration of this individual practically in front of me, but if you do it down the street I'm fine with it."

"At Birth" is an entirely consistent point of view, a historical point of view, and a rational point of view.  Almost/partially born?  Well, if "almost/partially" born causes us any concern at all, then we're well into the realm of horshoes and handgrenades. 

Woiceshyn is consistent, and Rand clearly equivocates in her statement. We wonder why? But then:

a] she was from an earlier generation,
b] she fled the Soviet meat wagon,
c] she tellingly named her first major novel "We the Living,"
d] she often condemned the worshippers of death in all their various forms.
e] she wasn't inhuman, just unGodly human.

(If ever there was a stronger 'pro-life', if not Pro-Life, advocate than Rand, it is hard to imagine.)

Yes, "Pro Choice" is a direction that avoids granting power to the mob--in the instance of failing to responsibly own ones' body and bring one's will to bear.   Meaning, one intended that sex be purely recreational/psychological, yet failed to competently practice contraception.   So, yes, it accrues benefits to a women's self interest, in the instance of her failure.    But in the many more instances of her competent successes, it accrues costs to her self-interests, in that it does reinforce the tribalist/other's main contention, that individuals exist/have rights at the whim of others.   As well, "Pro-Choice Until Age 21" would also be a direction that avoids granting power to the mob, and would protect parents from encroachment by the mob on their individual rights as parents.

I don't mean 'incompetent' in anything other than a factual way, as someone who has incompetently managed the concept of contraception in a failed attempt to convert their will into reality, and as a consequence, must consider an abortion.   I could easily have been or be an incompetent in that regard, and if I was, I would in fact be an incompetent in that regard.

Do we assume that only the hypothetical existence of yet more incompetents are obliterated when an incompetent fails and exercises "Pro-Choice?"   I don't think that is likely.  So, not only existing non-incompetents (women who competently exert their will into existence by actually owning their bodies without the need to obliterate mere potential others), but future non-incompetents as well are immolated in the name of accruing benefits to incompetents.   I can't believe Rand would advocate that easily.

Yet another torturous aside:  I too quickly accepted the 3 in 4 natural miscarriage statistic.   Those 3 out of 4 pregnant women who naturally miscarry do not then yet seek abortions.   I'm sure if I limited by thought experiment to pregnant moms who have successfully made it to the point of considering an abortion, that 3 out of 4 is long gone from the sample set. 

regards,
Fred


Post 141

Monday, June 4, 2007 - 7:40pmSanction this postReply
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Ok, I give up.  How do I get out of Quote mode?

Bridget said (!)
Personally, I think late term abortions ought to be allowed under specific provisos such as the endangerment of the mother, where the survivability, even with caesarian section, is slim, or if the fetus is shown that it will die after birth. But in the latter case, it ought to be decided by both parents. Because if we negate the right of a father in the latter case, it implies that it's okay to negate the right of the father in other cases (such as parental responsibilities and rights).

Acckkk! Still can't get out of quote mode!

OK, I say: 
RU already married, Bridget?

Oh wait, let me preface that:  I thought that whenever sexism worked to a woman's advantage it was good, and whenever it worked against her it was bad...

Bridget, you're not the first (alleged) woman I've read to claim otherwise, but the group is rather exclusive.


Post 142

Monday, June 4, 2007 - 8:54pmSanction this postReply
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"But the relevant meaning of "individual" here is an individual person, not individual piece of protoplasm, which is what a zygote is at the moment of conception."

Bill, except for the characterization of something as a "piece of protoplasm" I agree entirely. The zygote/embryo/fetus is always well structured enough that to refer to it as a "piece" of something is false - it is a unitary organism, a whole, not a piece. Also, biologists don't really use the word protoplasm any more. That term was used before the internal structure of the cell was understood. Nowadays it's terminology that reminds one of pachyderms, humours and ectoplasm.

In any case, personhood is the relevant issue.

Ted Keer

Post 143

Monday, June 4, 2007 - 11:01pmSanction this postReply
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Phil: OK, I say: RU already married, Bridget?

Me: Nope, because I was born male, I'm transgendered, so I can't get married in many instances. :-/


Also, Ted, what I'm stating wasn't that the woman's body was owned by the husband, but that the fetus took another person to form it. Human females can't just make them on their own without sperm, so unless the man waives his rights to the fetus, legally he'll be responsible to it after birth. In fact, that's the default position of the law still in many states. So, I say, if that's the default position, a male should have a say in the future of that fetus, if it's a late term abortion.

-- Brede

Post 144

Monday, June 4, 2007 - 11:15pmSanction this postReply
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Bridget,

I figured I was perhaps misunderstanding you. Are you thus saying that the man is proxy guardian, and that all rights inhere in the fetus? Or do you feel that the man has his own rights as parent?

Ted

Post 145

Monday, June 4, 2007 - 11:34pmSanction this postReply
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I wrote, "But the relevant meaning of "individual" here is an individual person, not individual piece of protoplasm, which is what a zygote is at the moment of conception." Ted replied,
Bill, except for the characterization of something as a "piece of protoplasm" I agree entirely. The zygote/embryo/fetus is always well structured enough that to refer to it as a "piece" of something is false - it is a unitary organism, a whole, not a piece. Also, biologists don't really use the word protoplasm any more. That term was used before the internal structure of the cell was understood. Nowadays it's terminology that reminds one of pachyderms, humours and ectoplasm.
Fair enough. I stand corrected.

- Bill


Post 146

Monday, June 4, 2007 - 11:53pmSanction this postReply
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Bridget (or is it Brede?) wrote,
Also, Ted, what I'm stating wasn't that the woman's body was owned by the husband, but that the fetus took another person to form it. Human females can't just make them on their own without sperm, so unless the man waives his rights to the fetus, legally he'll be responsible to it after birth. In fact, that's the default position of the law still in many states. So, I say, if that's the default position, a male should have a say in the future of that fetus, if it's a late term abortion.
But how does this translate into forcing her to bear the child? Why should he have the right to force her to give birth to it? If anything, it would mean only that he could demand that she have an abortion if he didn't consent to father the child and doesn't want to be responsible for it. But I don't see how he could have a right even to do that. She is not responsible for the laws requiring him to support the child, if he didn't choose to father it. Why does the existence of such a law, as bad as it is, mean that she has no right to bear the child if he doesn't want to support it? What she has no right to do is invoke the law in order to force him to support it. But by the same token, he has no right to tell her that she can't have the child. She has every right to have the child, so long as she doesn't force him to support it, assuming that he didn't consent to impregnate her and had a good reason to think that she was using birth control and would not become pregnant.

- Bill

Post 147

Tuesday, June 5, 2007 - 6:35amSanction this postReply
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Jon - would discuss more but it is off topic to this thread.  perhaps some other time.

Post 148

Tuesday, June 5, 2007 - 11:39amSanction this postReply
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Are you thus saying that the man is proxy guardian, and that all rights inhere in the fetus? Or do you feel that the man has his own rights as parent?

The latter, only because legally in the United States, a male is often get all the responsibilities, but none of the privileges that comes with fatherhood. Men are more easily separated from their progeny in the US, just to name one injustice in the so-called courts, even if there's no evidence of abusive behavior from the father and what not. Men in this regard are seem as disposal, replaceable persons within the role of fatherhood, yet women are not treated in a similar manner in regards to motherhood. To me, this disturbs me, because if it follows for one does it not follow for the other, and if it follows for both, then what is the point of parenthood?

Sorry, for the tangent, but it's one that comes to mind in such situations.

-- Brede

Post 149

Tuesday, June 5, 2007 - 4:05pmSanction this postReply
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Psssst, Phil....over here...

Stuff I want to quote is in this line.. quote quote quote, blah blah blah...copy paste copy paste, yadda yadda...

Hit enter to create a new line..
Stuff I want to quote is in this line... quote quote quote, blah blah blah...copy paste copy paste, yadda yadda...

Then I go back and highlight the stuff I want to quote, and hit the "Quote" button.  In other words, don't highlight and hit quote unless you have a new line under the quote text.

It took me forever to figure it out. I forget who, but someone here finally filled me in.


Post 150

Friday, June 8, 2007 - 10:18amSanction this postReply
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robert:

 My assertion/belief is, the responsibility for the existence of that life/process is squarely on the shoulders of those who factually invited it.   But, I could never argue for a state imposed/point of a gun enforcement of that belief, or the consequences of that belief.  They are mine.

At least he's honest enough to acknowledge it's merely a belief, not a knowing...
I am barely that honest, but let me be more honest still.   When I first read that, I had to assume that you believed the opposite: that, the existence of adults whose actions result in a process is squarely on the shoulders of the process, and that the process thus bore some responsibility for this perceived conflict. 

I don't know how that is in fact possible, but I do know that it is possible to believe anything.   I just assumed it was some antipodal thing, applied to logic.     Yet the comparison with your implied alternative, somehow, failed to divorce me of my mere belief.

Honestly.   Was it supposed to, or was it what it appeared to be, a drive by?   We mere secular believers so enjoy the entertaining updates from the true believing knowers, especially when they seemingly have knowledge of facts which would negate causality.    Maybe zygotes do cause parents to come into existence...down under?

regards,
Fred


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