| | Responding to John Howard's post #70
Mr. Howard is correct when he says I called for a 'monopoly' in the law. I don't think I was unclear in the context, but I will agree with him to the extent that the law isn't a commonly understood referent of the term. There should have been no difficulty understanding me - I stated, in other words, just what I meant by that - Only one set of laws for a given jurisdiction. Mr. Howard himself makes use of the term "monopoly" in the very same post when he says,
...the phrase "privileged ruling class" is appropriate if we are referring to a gang that has a monopoly on the enforcement of rules (let alone a monopoly on the making and changing of the rules). I repeat from my earlier post: any such monopoly is, itself, an initiation of force and a violation of the principal of equal rights. (Bolded emphasis mine, SW) That is in the same post where he makes such a fuss over my using the word "monopoly" that he supplied a definition! So you can't use the term "monopoly" in referring to the law, but you can use it when referring to the "making and changing of the rules"? Is the word "rules" being use used in some way that is significantly different than the word "law"? If so, we should know.
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But I really get confused when I see that Mr. Howard says this in post #59 :
"Good law merely requires the general acceptance" and no monopoly of enforcement. We had agreed that there was no need for monopoly of enforcement - there can be self-defense, cops, body guards, military, defense agencies, private police forces, etc - as long as they confined their actions to within the law. And we agree on a single set of laws (from post #70):
I certainly believe in one set of correct rules being in force over a given territory and not in competing sets of rules, but I believe that every individual in that territory has the right to enforce (and the obligation to obey) those correct rules I had asked him in post #61, where does this "general acceptance" come from? Because we should go there and get it. He makes this statement in post #70
As for my reference to "general acceptance", which Steve Wolfer doubts the existence of, I am referring only to the general acceptance that supports the present system. The most totalitarian dictatorship requires it. It is the reason the Objectivist/Libertarian revolution hasn't yet occurred. I have never said or implied that the rules need not be enforced and that they require general acceptance only. Is anyone other than me confused? These bullet points are what I'm trying to make sense of:
- If you have "general acceptance" and no monopoly of enforcement, you get good law, according to Mr. Howard.
- We have no monopoly of enforcement, and we have general acceptance of the current system, yet we have lots of bad law.
- Totalitarian dictatorships have general acceptance (according to Mr. Howard), so evidently their bad laws are due to a monopoly on enforcement.
- Every individual has an obligation to obey correct rules, according to Mr. Howard.
- Every inividual has a right to enforce correct rules according to Mr. Howard.
- But how do we get those correct rules, as per his theory, if it requires "general acceptence" (and no monopoly on enforcement).
All that I can think is that the "correct rules" have to materialize magically, or "general acceptance" has to change (but that takes me right back to what I asked in the first place, "Where do we get that?") or Mr. Howard is saying that if people don't obey incorrect rules, and instead enforce only what they believe to be 'correct rules' even though those rules aren't codified.... No, that doesn't work because it would mean two rules in the same jursidiction. Is he saying that if we all come to believe in utopia of type x to the degree that we are in "general agreement" (and don't have a monopoly on enforcement) that will generate the correct rules and we will then obey and enforce these correct rules and be happy forever?
Okay, we agree there should only be one set of laws in a jurisdiction. We both agree that is okay to have private forms of enforcement. We both agree that correct rules should be obeyed. Does that mean the government agencies (e.g., police get to exist in your system, Mr. Howard, and that they too get to enforce those laws as well as a person acting in self-defense, body guard, etc.?
This isn't a subject that should be this difficult to resolve to a clearer state of agreement or disagreement.
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