| | I would advise you all to not bothering reading any further in this post. It is a long, boring, rant born of my frustration. Trust me, you can skip it. ----------------
In post #59 John Howard say,
"What is required is good, consistent, permanent law, not monopolistic enforcers with the open-ended power of legislation." I captured that quote, and the next one, and everyone in this post with tried-and-true copy-paste, since that little boy scout is accusing me of mistating his position:
"Good law merely requires the general acceptance." In post #61 I ask where would we get this 'general acceptance' stuff? He makes a reply addressed to me in Post #63 but it doesn't address the question.
Understand that Mr. Howard has said that good law is required, not monopolistic enforcers and he has said that good law merely requires the general acceptance (post #59 mentioned above). I just put together two sentences (they are in the same paragraph) to frame the question that I asked earlier, and that he still has not answered - I asked again in post #67:
"Well, if general acceptance were available on the shelf of a local store, or growing on the tree outside my door, why would we even be having this discussion?" I ask because I'm still thinking, that in his mind, it is the source of good law. Wouldn't you want to know where to get some of that?
In post #70, John Howard says,
"As for my reference to "general acceptance", which Steve Wolfer doubts the existence of, I am referring only to the general acceptance that supports the present system. The most totalitarian dictatorship requires it." So, good law merely requires the general acceptance, but most totalitarian dictatorships require general acceptance as well. Tell me this isn't frustrating! I'm trying to follow this and understand what this "general acceptance" is and not getting anywhere. And now I have to figure out how the source of good law could also be the requirement of totalitarian dictatorships and supports the present system.
In post #77, I'm still trying to get an answer, asking,
"...how do we get those correct rules, as per his theory, if it requires "general acceptence"..." and he replies in post #92 he says,
"I said that general acceptance is always present for any system to exist..." and
"I haven't addressed the causes of good law..." and
"That's a good question for another thread, but the fact that you raise a question that I have not yet addressed is irrelevant to the truth of what I have addressed." Now at this point, is anyone ready to give up on understanding how:
"Good law merely requires the general acceptance" A statement given with no explanation of where it comes from, or how it is also required for totalitarian governments, and it is always present for any system to exist, and that it isn't relevant to the 'truth' of what he has addressed? What truth? And what do you mean saying you didn't address 'general agreement' and 'good law.' Please, don't answer these, Mr. Howard, they were merely rhetorical and I am no longer am interested. -------------
Here is the lead paragraph from Mr. Howard in post #92:
Steve Wolfer claims that I should have known from the context what he meant when he misused a word. I would argue that he should have known from the context what I meant when I didn't misuse the word. And it was I who finally did figure out what he meant and pointed out the verbal dispute, so now Mr. Wolfer makes it clear that I was still wrong for not having figured out his error sooner. He would have less confusion if he would stick to stating his own views, rather than ascribing views to me.
For anyone machochistic enough to still be following this boring liturgy of trivia (don't say I didn't warn you), here is what he was referring to (post #77):
Mr. Howard is correct when he says I called for a 'monopoly' in the law. I don't think I was unclear in the context, but I will agree with him to the extent that the law isn't a commonly understood referent of the term. There should have been no difficulty understanding me - I stated, in other words, just what I meant by that - Only one set of laws for a given jurisdiction. Mr. Howard himself makes use of the term "monopoly" in the very same post... and I went on to give many examples of Mr. Howard using the term 'monopoly'. sigh... ---------------
Mr. Howard,
It should not be this difficult for two rational people, presuming some good will and basic principles in common, to have a discussion. I am not having this problem with other members. You mischaracterize my arguments and I find that your style of arguing grates on me and makes it unpleasant. So you will understand if I choose not to reply to any of your posts in the future.
(Edited by Steve Wolfer on 7/20, 8:47am)
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