| | Jon writes, "In debates like these I often sense a tendency to deny that a genuine conflict can occur. As well as denial that not all ‘violations’ are equal. The deniers will declare, ‘The initiator of force is wrong, the victim is right, end of story.’
"Consider the fish. It’s not a question of what value the industrial concern puts on fish, for they are *my* fish. I am the property owner downstream who bought the property so I could fish there. I don’t want compensation for dead, $5 fish, I demand that the destruction of my property stop now. What if we cannot resolve it?"
What do you mean - what if we cannot resolve it?? There is nothing to resolve. The industrial concern stops violating my rights. Period. End of story. You might as well argue that if a robber wants my money but I don't want to give it to him, we have a problem. So, what do we do if we cannot resolve it? Obviously, we "resolve" it in favor of the property owner. It is the principle of rights that provides the resolution.
Jon continues, "In ruling the disagreement will you not be compelled to compare the relative importance, irrespective of my and their assessment of importance, of fishing versus making cars or whatever it is they make?"
Relative importance to whom? Suppose I happen to think that your life is of less relative importance (to me) than mine is. Does that give me the right to steal your property and use it to serve my values? Suppose a majority considers their lives of greater relative importance (to them) than the lives of a minority. Does that give them the right to sacrifice the rights of the minority to their interests? I don't think so.
Jon continues, "Or my favorite topic: Eminent domain. Imagine a railroad that is transitioning to 500 mph passenger business against the airlines. They own a one thousand-mile corridor through North America. They need to widen it from 50 ft to 65 ft. in order to make the changes. They go about buying-up the 15 ft sections of private farmland. Trouble emerges when one farmers contacts the rail company and names his price. They respond that they don’t need any of his land; they are already over 65 ft wide through his parcel. The farmer insists that’s not true. The dispute is complicated by deeds that were written over one hundred years ago and use a creek in their definition. One party says the creek channel has moved, the other say it has not moved. There are other complications. Assume the evidence is about 51/49 for the farmer. They cannot resolve it, so it goes to court. The farmer is now so pissed that he says he will never sell his land, not even for “one hundred million billion dollars!”
Look, either he already made the deal, in which case, he is bound to it, and the court must decide what the deal amounts to and enforce its decision irrespective of the farmer's wishes, or the farmer didn't make the deal, in which case, the railroad should not have gone ahead with the project until it had secured title to all of the land that it needed.
Besides, without property rights, no "deals" are required, because in that case they don't need to be respected or adhered to. Deals, by their very nature, presuppose an understanding of and a respect for property rights. Without property rights, the railroad wouldn't need to buy up the farmland in the first place; it could just take it by force. If it is conceded that it must secure the voluntary cooperation of the individual property owners adjacent to its corridor, then on what basis can it arbitrarily suspend that principle, if one or more of the farmers refuse to cooperate?
Jon adds, "In deciding this dispute, could you rationally ignore the fact that ruling for the farmer has the consequence of dramatically destroying the value of the other 999 miles of the rail company’s property, hundreds of millions of dollars, perhaps even billions, (it’s value is related to it’s unbroken length at a certain width), while ruling for the rail company has the consequence of taking (per the farmer’s claim) a few feet out of thousands of acres of corn-dirt?"
Value to whom? Not to the farmer, if he doesn't want to sell. Nor is there any basis for arguing that the values of others (the railroad and its prospective passengers) are objectively superior to those of the farmer, if he prefers to keep title to his property. If the farmer doesn't want to sell his property, what right does the railroad have to take it by force just because the railroad would be better able to compete with the airlines if it did? Eminent domain obliterates the very concept of rights and substitutes for it the principle of statist intervention according to which every individual is subject to the arbitrary will of the government on behalf of special interests.
- Bill
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