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Post 0

Sunday, January 14, 2007 - 2:32pmSanction this postReply
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A few weeks ago, Ed Thompson reproduced a number of reflections, written by some rather notable authors, concerning religious belief.  Because all of these reflections betray a certain antipathy/criticality toward religion in general, and Christianity in particular, I believe they warrant response from a religious protagonist (such as myself).  Thus, in the interests of furthering religious discussion and defending Christianity, I've decided to offer a response to each reflection. 
Religions are not revealed: they are evolved. If a religion were revealed by God, that religion would be perfect in whole and in part, and would be as perfect at the first moment of its revelation as after ten thousand years of practice. There has never been a religion that fulfils those conditions.--Robert Blatchford, God and My Neighbor, 1903.
I disagree.  If a religion were revealed by God, and that religion was to be interpreted, practiced, and transmitted by human beings possessing free will, such a religion would most likely not "be perfect in whole and in part," as Blatchford suggests.  For a God who respected human free will, though He certainly would offer a perfect revelation to man, would not be able to ensure that His revelation would remain unmarred and unsullied through its human reception, lest he deliberately override human free will.  This explains why Christians believe that Christ is in fact a perfect revelation of God, despite their recognization of Christian inability to perfectly perform and live by Christianity.  Christians are well-aware that their religion is not "perfect in whole and in part", since they (as its practictioners) possess free will, and are imperfect.  Thus, I must disagree with Blatchford, and deny the necessary perfection of any God-revealed religion, since the perfection of a religion depends upon the perfection of its practictioners.  And a God who respects the free will of its creatures cannot ensure their perfection. 
It has always seemed absurd to suppose that a god would choose for his companions, during all eternity, the dear souls whose highest and only ambitition is to obey.--Robert G. Ingersoll, "Individuality."
From the perspective of Christianity, it is not at all absurd that God "choose for his companions, during all eternity, the dear souls whose highest and only ambition is to obey", for to obey God above all else is to treat him as one's final end and ultimate purpose.  For Christianity, such a obedience is not absurd, but is rather incomparably rational-- since there is no greater ambition than to offer one's obedience and service toward that Reality which is Highest in terms of Blessedness, Goodness, and Love.   
A being who can create a race of men devoid of real freedom and inevitably foredoomed to be sinners, and then punish them for being what he has made them, may be omnipotent and various other things, but he is not what the English language has always intended by the adjective holy.--John Stuart Mill, Examination of Sir William Hamilton's Philosophy, 1865.
I agree with Mill:  such a being would not be "what the English language has always intended by the adjective holy".  However, I don't believe that the God of Christianity is such a being, since Christian doctrine affirms that men are not "devoid of" but rather possess real freedom, and that they are not "inevitably foredoomed to be sinners", because the sin of the First Man (i.e. Adam) was not a necessary event.  Still more, on the Christian view, God does not "punish men for what he has made them", but instead, for what they have made themselves; for the Christian doctrine of free will implies personal responsibility for human action, and thereby only imputes guilt where it affirms responsibility.                
Since the masses of the people are inconstant, full of unruly desires, passionate, and reckless of consequence, they must be filled with fears to keep them in order. The ancients did well, therefore, to invent gods, and the belief in punishment after death.--Polybius, Histories, 125 B.C.
Though I do not share Polybius' cynical sentiments regarding the "masses", even if one were to agree with such sentiments, it would not follow that P.'s assertion- that the ancients "invent[ed] gods, and the belief in punishment after death" in order to keep the masses in order through fear- would affect the truth or falsity of the proposition "God exists".  For it could well be that God exists, despite the fact that the ancients deemed it practical to instill belief in Him among the unruly masses.  Thus, we must conclude that, used as an argument against the existence of God, Polybius' assertion commits the 'genetic fallacy', and so fails.
Heaven, as conventionally described, is a place so inane, so dull, so useless, so miserable, that nobody has ever ventured to describe a whole day in heaven, though plenty of people have described a day at the seaside.--George Bernard Shaw, Misalliance, 1910.
No one has ventured to describe a day in heaven for the simple reason that heaven is essentially beyond detailed description.  What we know about heaven-- that it consists in the eternal enjoyment of the Beatific Vision, or union with God-- should only appear "inane...dull...useless...[or] miserable" to someone who doesn't know who God is, or who hasn't experienced the awesomeness of God through religious experience.    
Our reason can never admit the testimony of men who not only declare that they were eyewitnesses of miracles, but that the Deity was irrational; for He commanded that He should be believed, He proposed the highest rewards for faith, eternal punishment for disbelief.--Percy Byssshe Shelley, Queen Mab, 1813.
First, I see no justifiable reason why our reason can "never admit the testimony of men who...declare that they were eyewitnesses of miracles".  For, if we had reason to admit the testimony of these men, or reason to believe that such miracles were likely to occur, we should find it reasonable to believe such men's testimonies.  Second, though I agree that our reason can never admit testimony from men which implies that "the Deity was irrational", I do not believe that the Deity was/is irrational.  Shelley believes God to be irrational on the grounds that:  1)  He commanded that He should be believed and 2) He proposed the highest rewards for faith, eternal punishment for disbelief.  As to the first charge, that God commanded that He should be believed, I do not agree that such divine action is irrational.  For, if belief be understood as voluntary acceptance, and not involuntary recognition-as-true, it is perfectly rational that God command that He be "believed" (and this is, I think, the proper employment of the word).  With respect, then, to the second charge, that God "proposed the highest rewards for faith, eternal punishment for disbelief", I must deny it for the same reason I denied the first:  it confuses the meaning of belief.  Indeed, it would be irrational for God to reward and punish belief and disbelief, respectively, if such belief meant 'involuntary recognition-as-true', since only voluntary action can merit reward or punishment.  But if belief (cred-) be taken in its other sense, i.e. as intellectual, voluntary acceptance, then it would be perfectly rational for God to give out reward and punishment for belief and unbelief, respectively.            
God's contempt for human minds is evidenced by miracles. He judges them unworthy of being drawn to Him by other means than those of stupefaction and the crudest modes of sensibility.--Paul Vale`ry, Tel quel, 1941-43.
I must disagree with Mr. Vale`ry, as it is not true that God "judges [people] unworthy of being drawn to Him by other means than those of stupefaction and the crudest modes of sensibility".  As the Divine Constitution Dei Verbum makes clear, God draws men to Himself primary through Christ, who is a revelation of the Love of God: 
In His goodness and wisdom God chose to reveal Himself and to make known to us the hidden purpose of His will (see Eph. 1:9) by which through Christ, the Word made flesh, man might in the Holy Spirit have access to the Father and come to share in the divine nature (see Eph. 2:18; 2 Peter 1:4). Through this revelation, therefore, the invisible God (see Col. 1;15, 1 Tim. 1:17) out of the abundance of His love speaks to men as friends (see Ex. 33:11; John 15:14-15) and lives among them (see Bar. 3:38), so that He may invite and take them into fellowship with Himself.
Therefore, it is not true that God has no other means to draw men to Himself than by over-awing them by miracles, since God primarily draws men to himself through Love in the Person of Christ, through whom miracles flow.


Post 1

Sunday, January 14, 2007 - 8:27pmSanction this postReply
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For a God who respected human free will, though He certainly would offer a perfect revelation to man, would not be able to ensure that His revelation would remain unmarred and unsullied through its human reception, lest he deliberately override human free will. 

Then you concede that the Bible is a flawed document - how could it be otherwise if flawed individuals were responsible for transcribing and translating it? 


Post 2

Sunday, January 14, 2007 - 8:47pmSanction this postReply
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Ok, I'm bored, and I'll respond to another point...
However, I don't believe that the God of Christianity is such a being, since Christian doctrine affirms that men are not "devoid of" but rather possess real freedom, and that they are not "inevitably foredoomed to be sinners", because the sin of the First Man (i.e. Adam) was not a necessary event. 
But if God was both all knowing and good - a view I presume you hold - then he HAD to have known in advance that evil and suffering would take root in his creation.  Given the needless suffering of innocents in this world, whether at the hand of other humans or natural disasters, we must therefore conclude that your god is either incompetent or malicious. 


Post 3

Sunday, January 14, 2007 - 8:52pmSanction this postReply
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Then you concede that the Bible is a flawed document - how could it be otherwise if flawed individuals were responsible for transcribing and translating it? 
I do not concede that the Bible is, properly interpreted, a "flawed document", as its truth has been preserved through the working of the Holy Spirit in and through the Church.  The point I intended to make was that individuals within the Church or in imperfect communion with the Church (for example, in the case of the Protestant faithful) have indeed not all practiced their faith and/or passed on their faith perfectly.  Historical examples of both kinds (like complicity in the holocaust on the part of many of the European faithful, and the activities of heretics who managed to distort teachings and mislead many) abound.         

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Post 4

Sunday, January 14, 2007 - 9:54pmSanction this postReply
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How do you know your interpretation is "proper"?

Post 5

Monday, January 15, 2007 - 7:47amSanction this postReply
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But if God was both all knowing and good - a view I presume you hold - then he HAD to have known in advance that evil and suffering would take root in his creation.  Given the needless suffering of innocents in this world, whether at the hand of other humans or natural disasters, we must therefore conclude that your god is either incompetent or malicious. 

I was hoping someone would raise this point, since it is a manifestation of the only significant argument against the existence of the Christian God.  The logical argument from evil was given its most robust contemporary formulation at the hands of J.L. Mackie in "Evil and Omnipotence".  However, as nearly all philosophers recognize, this argument was soon after successfully dismantled by Alvin Plantinga, in ch. 9 ("God, Evil, and the Metaphysics of Freedom") of his 1974 classic, The Nature of Necessity.  This of course did not mean the disappearance of the argument from evil in all its forms, since the evidentialist argument from evil had not suffered a refutation comparable to the logical.  However, Plantinga's refutation did (and does) signal the end of the effort to show that the existence of an omnimax God (i.e. One omnibenevolent, omniscient, and omnipotent) and evil, properly speaking, are logically incompatible.   

That's just historical background.  Now let me specifically address the argument you've presented above, which takes the form:
1.  God is (allegedly) omnimax.
2.  There is evil. 
3.  God knew in advance (before creation) that there would be evil. (from 1 and 2)
4.  God should have prevented all evil.  (from 1 and 3)
5.  God didn't prevent all evil.  (self-evidently follows from 2)
______________________________________________
6.  God is either incompetent (not all-powerful) or malicious (not all-good). 

There are two general ways of going about refuting this argument.  The first is to deny premise 3, i.e. that God knew in advance (before creation) that there would be evil.  Some Christians have argued (notably, St. Thomas Aquinas, Boethius, and C.S. Lewis) that God is atemporal-- meaning his knowledge and being exist outside of time.  Thus, the denial of premise 3; since for these Christians God, being atemporal, did not (or would not) "know in advance" that there would be evil.  As Aquinas says in Ch. 67 of the Summa Contra Gentiles
When it is said, 'God knows, or knew, this coming event,' an intervening medium is supposed between the divine knowledge and the thing known, to wit, the time to which the utterance points, in respect to which that which is said to be known by God is in the future. But really it is not in the future in respect of the divine knowledge, which existing in the instant of eternity is present to all things. In respect of such knowledge, if we set aside the time of speaking, it is impossible to say that so-and-so is known as non-existent; and the question never arises as to whether the thing possibly may never occur. As thus known, it should be said to be seen by God as already present in its existence. Under this aspect, the question of the possibility of the thing never coming to be can no longer be raised: what already is, in respect of that present instant cannot but be.
Now, the objection may continue, "It matters not that we say 'God knows' (present) instead of 'God foreknew' (past), for in both cases we face the problem of God failing to stop evil, whether then or now."  However, to this, all we need to say is that, since there is no foreknowing in God, God does not 'plan' evil, but rather creates an intrinsically good Universe while at the same time perceiving the evil which arises from his creation as a cause. 

The next way to refute the argument is to (with St. Augustine and Leibniz) deny premise 4, i.e. that God should have prevented all evil.  For one might argue that God (so long as He is not its cause) could have foreknown and permitted evil on account of also knowing in advance that such evil would bring about a greater good
As Leibniz once put it in his Theodicy
[T]he best plan is not always that which seeks to avoid evil, since it may happen that the evil is accompanied by a greater good. For example, a general of an army will prefer a great victory with a slight wound to a condition without wound and without victory. We have proved this more fully in the large work by making it clear, by instances taken from mathematics and elsewhere, that an imperfection in the part may be required for a greater perfection in the whole. In this I have followed the opinion of St. Augustine, who has said a hundred times, that God has permitted evil in order to bring about good, that is, a greater good; and that of Thomas Aquinas (in libr. II. sent. dist. 32, qu. I, art. 1), that the permitting of evil tends to the good of the universe. I have shown that the ancients called Adam's fall felix culpa, a happy sin, because it had been retrieved with immense advantage by the incarnation of the Son of God, who has given to the universe something nobler than anything that ever would have been among creatures except for it. For the sake of a clearer understanding, I have added, following many good authors, that it was in accordance with order and the general good that God allowed to certain creatures the opportunity of exercising their liberty, even when he foresaw that they would turn to evil, but which he could so well rectify; because it was not fitting that, in order to hinder sin, God should always act in an extraordinary manner. To overthrow this objection, therefore, it is sufficient to show that a world with evil might be better than a world without evil...


Post 6

Monday, January 15, 2007 - 2:38pmSanction this postReply
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In response to your post number 5:

Denying premise 3 says that God cannot see things in advance.  In which case, how does one explain the book of Revelations?  How can God know that Jesus will come again?  The Bible is full of predictions and prophecies about the future.  Denying premise 3 means these portions of the Bible are hogwash - do you agree?

On to your next point...
To overthrow this objection, therefore, it is sufficient to show that a world with evil might be better than a world without evil...
WHAT?!?!? You need to really take a step back and ponder the absurdity of that proposition.  Is the world a better place because of the Holocaust?  Is the world a better place because of serial killers?

You provide the analogy of how it's better for a general to take some losses en route to victory, rather than to take no losses and not achieve victory.  Sure, that's true.  But all that shows is adherence to a hierarchy of values.  At best, examples like that merely show how a good person can navigate a world that already contains evil, to minimize it's impact on our lives.  We naturally want to minimize that impact because EVIL IS NOT GOOD - EVER!!!!

Sheesh!  If those are the best arguments Christian apologists can muster up on the subject, you're not standing on firm ground. 


Post 7

Monday, January 15, 2007 - 3:11pmSanction this postReply
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How do you know your interpretation is "proper"?
I don't profess to "know" it is proper, but I do believe and accept the authority of the Catholic Church, whose existence preceded that of the Bible, and which was responsible for Sacred Scripture's continued preservation, legitimation, and, most importantly, interpretation. 
Denying premise 3 says that God cannot see things in advance.  In which case, how does one explain the book of Revelations?  How can God know that Jesus will come again?  The Bible is full of predictions and prophecies about the future.  Denying premise 3 means these portions of the Bible are hogwash - do you agree?
No, I do not agree, since prophecies about the future are given to men who exist temporally.  Indeed, even though from the human perspective it appears as though God knows what occurs in advance in order to impart this knowledge to men, sub specie aeterni, that is, from the perspective of God, all temporal events exist within an eternal present, such that God does not properly know anything 'in advance'.    
On to your next point...

To overthrow this objection, therefore, it is sufficient to show that a world with evil might be better than a world without evil...
WHAT?!?!? You need to really take a step back and ponder the absurdity of that proposition.  Is the world a better place because of the Holocaust?  Is the world a better place because of serial killers?

How are we to know, given our limited spatio-temporal perspective? 

More to come, but now I must go... 


Post 8

Thursday, January 18, 2007 - 1:00pmSanction this postReply
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On to your next point...

To overthrow this objection, therefore, it is sufficient to show that a world with evil might be better than a world without evil...
WHAT?!?!? You need to really take a step back and ponder the absurdity of that proposition.  Is the world a better place because of the Holocaust?  Is the world a better place because of serial killers?
I would just like to add that not all Christians are committed to the idea that our world is a better place because of evil.  Leibniz is committed to this because of his metaphysical views:  "Since God can only create the best, our world must be the best of all possible worlds".  However, many other Christian thinkers (such as myself) don't share Leibniz's metaphysical presuppositions.  In their view (and mine), there may be an infinite number of possible worlds, such that there exists no 'best' world which God can possible create.  Thus, for these Christians, the world is not necessarily a better place because of, for example, the Holocaust, but God will nevertheless bring good out of the evil done in the Holocaust, and eventually prove victorious over all evil in our world, and this while continuing to respect the cooperation of human free will.   


Post 9

Thursday, January 18, 2007 - 3:27pmSanction this postReply
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How do you know your interpretation is "proper"?
Why not just answer Pete's simple question?  Cut to the chase, already.


Post 10

Thursday, January 18, 2007 - 8:25pmSanction this postReply
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How do you know your interpretation is "proper"?
Why not just answer Pete's simple question?  Cut to the chase, already.
First, I don't know it's proper, but rather accept it as proper.  Second, it isn't my interpretation, but rather that of the Catholic Church, which has been given by God the task of safeguarding and properly interpreting the divine dispensation with which it has been entrusted. 


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Post 11

Friday, January 19, 2007 - 3:51amSanction this postReply
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First, I don't know it's proper, but rather accept it as proper.  Second, it isn't my interpretation, but rather that of the Catholic Church, which has been given by God the task of safeguarding and properly interpreting the divine dispensation with which it has been entrusted. 
You'll accept something that isn't certain? You just accept that the Church was given this task by god, but you don't know it for certain. You accept the idea that the Church offers a proper interpretation, sans any referent of certainty.

Acceptance without certainty =  Faith.  Faith, the bane of human history. 


Post 12

Friday, January 19, 2007 - 9:28amSanction this postReply
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You'll accept something that isn't certain? You just accept that the Church was given this task by god, but you don't know it for certain. You accept the idea that the Church offers a proper interpretation, sans any referent of certainty.

Acceptance without certainty =  Faith.  Faith, the bane of human history. 
I accept many things to be true which aren't certain, viz. that the future will resemble the past, that I am loved by my parents, that my sense perceptions represent an external world which is not the product of my brain being placed in a vat and subjected to various artificial stimuli, or otherwise the result of pure hallucination.  I also accept the notion that other humans have real minds, to which they have privileged access, and are not just zombie-like creatures exhibiting curious behavior which appears to, but does not really, correspond to actual mental states.            

I also accept the idea that I will be alive tomorrow, though it is perfectly possible that tomorrow I will be hit by a car and killed while walking to university. 

Life is full of uncertainties which we determine to be more or less acceptable and with which we act in accordance, as if they were true.  Ask any philosopher:  they will tell you that, at most, the only real certainties are a priori mathematical or conceptual truths-- like 1+1 is 2. 

I say, mathematical theorems can be built on such narrow foundations, but life cannot.  


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Post 13

Friday, February 2, 2007 - 4:58pmSanction this postReply
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A veritable cornucopia of conundrums, Herr Leibniz.

AS


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Post 14

Friday, February 2, 2007 - 6:13pmSanction this postReply
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As a mathematical footnote Herr Leibniz, could you go through the major differences between your version of calculus and that of Mr. Newton?

A.S.


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Post 15

Friday, February 2, 2007 - 8:06pmSanction this postReply
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As a mathematical footnote Herr Leibniz, could you go through the major differences between your version of calculus and that of Mr. Newton?
No, but you can be my official jester if you like.  If my posts ever become intolerably long or dry, I hereby grant you the privilege of sprinkling in a few choice witticisms.  However, if I am to condescend to give you this highly sought after position, all your posts must be truly humorous, i.e. they can't be like the ones you've made thus far.  There are time constraints as well; if I don't see you making positive strides to improve your jokes within the week, I will be forced to strip you of your title.       


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Post 16

Saturday, February 3, 2007 - 11:10amSanction this postReply
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I accept many things to be true which aren't certain, viz. that the future will resemble the past, that I am loved by my parents, that my sense perceptions represent an external world which is not the product of my brain being placed in a vat and subjected to various artificial stimuli, or otherwise the result of pure hallucination. I also accept the notion that other humans have real minds, to which they have privileged access, and are not just zombie-like creatures exhibiting curious behavior which appears to, but does not really, correspond to actual mental states.
What you describe here is not acceptance on faith, but acceptance on the basis of reasonable evidence. The future will resemble the past, ceteris paribus, because existence is identity. The same things must act the same way under the same conditions, because the way something acts is a function of what it is. It could only act differently if it were different. You accept your parents as loving you, because their actions reflect it. This is not faith; it is hard evidence.

Rather than "represent" the external world, your sensory perceptions are OF the external world, as there is nothing else to perceive. A consciousness conscious of nothing is a contradiction in terms; a consciousness conscious of nothing but itself is a contradiction in terms; before it could identify itself as conscious; it would have to be conscious of something. If what you claim to perceive does not exist, what you possess is not consciousness. (Rand)

How do you know that your brain is not in a vat? Well, if it were, the concept of "brain in a vat" would have no meaning. "Brain in a vat" in contrast to what? In contrast to what you understand to be the external world, which is what you are now perceiving. If what you are aware of is an hallucination, then what is an hallucination? An hallucination is understood only by reference to that which is NOT an hallucination, which is the real world -- the world of which you are presently aware.

As for the existence of other minds, one can infer their existence from their observed effects. Again, this is not faith; it is a rational inference, based on the law of causality, which is a corollary of the law of identity. It is not faith that tells me that if I leap from a tall building, I will plummet to my death; it is my knowledge of the law of gravity.
I also accept the idea that I will be alive tomorrow, though it is perfectly possible that tomorrow I will be hit by a car and killed while walking to university.
What you are "accepting" is that it is very UNLIKELY that you will be hit by a car and killed while walking to university, because this kind of fatal accident happens so seldom. You are not claiming to KNOW for certain that it won't happen. But you ARE claiming to know for certain that it is very unlikely to happen.
Life is full of uncertainties which we determine to be more or less acceptable and with which we act in accordance, as if they were true. Ask any philosopher: they will tell you that, at most, the only real certainties are a priori mathematical or conceptual truths-- like 1+1 is 2.
Well, Rand is a philosopher, and she wouldn't tell you that.
I say, mathematical theorems can be built on such narrow foundations, but life cannot.
And I say, life cannot be built on a belief in the supernatural, but death certainly can! Ask any Islamofascist.

- Bill

Post 17

Monday, February 5, 2007 - 2:44pmSanction this postReply
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What you describe here is not acceptance on faith, but acceptance on the basis of reasonable evidence.
There is faith and there is blind faith.  If you think "faith" can only mean "blind faith", then I suggest you revise your definition of faith for the purposes of this discussion, since the only kind of faith I endorse is that which is rationally justified.  I agree that we ought to condemn purely blind faith. 

The future will resemble the past, ceteris paribus, because existence is identity. The same things must act the same way under the same conditions, because the way something acts is a function of what it is.

Right, but "what a thing is" is determined by the way we see it acting.  You've put the cart before the horse.  You want to say that the reason why the future will resemble the past with respect to identity over time is because this has to do with the definition of the thing's identity, but we define a thing's identity only by observing how it changes over time. 
It could only act differently if it were different. 
 When we describe things in our universe, we don't just describe them in themselves, though that is certainly the lion's share of metaphysics.  We also describe them with reference to those things which act upon them, like the laws of physics.  If the laws of physics were significantly altered, then things would be acting very differently, though they may not become much different in themselves.
You accept your parents as loving you, because their actions reflect it. This is not faith; it is hard evidence.
No, I accept it to be true that my parents love me based on hard evidence.  This acceptance can also be termed faith. 

There are no degrees of rational acceptance.  I could not accept that my parents love me insofar as I have evidence that they do; this is just absurd.  If someone were to ask me, "Do you believe your parents love you?"  I would say, "Yes."  I would not say (since it would be absurd to say) "I have good evidence for believing my parents love me."  That doesn't answer the question, and the person would respond, "You speak of the sort of justification you have for belief, but I'm asking you:  Do you believe your parents love you?"  To this I can only rationally respond with a 'yes' or 'no' answer.   

Rather than "represent" the external world, your sensory perceptions are OF the external world
The distinction seems to be purely nominal.  What's the difference, other than wording? 

...as there is nothing else to perceive
Concepts and mathematics are a priori.  We have every reason to think them innate. 

A consciousness conscious of nothing is a contradiction in terms; a consciousness conscious of nothing but itself is a contradiction in terms; before it could identify itself as conscious; it would have to be conscious of something.
How does this pertain to what I said? 
How do you know that your brain is not in a vat? Well, if it were, the concept of "brain in a vat" would have no meaning. "Brain in a vat" in contrast to what?
This is bad reasoning.  Nothing against Hilary Putnam.  He's a good philosopher and theistic to boot.  But I must disagree with the idea that concepts which have been artificially stimulated have no meaning.  They certainly have no meaning from the objective perspective, but for the brain-in-a-vat person, they have plenty of meaning.  The brain-in-a-vat person knows what a vat is based on artificial brain stimulus; and what he imagines is that he might be placed in any sort of environment (like a vat) in which these stimulations are artificial (as opposed to natural...or derivative from the world as it is objectively). 

If what you are aware of is an hallucination, then what is an hallucination? An hallucination is understood only by reference to that which is NOT an hallucination, which is the real world -- the world of which you are presently aware.

If I have been living my life from day one in a hallucinary state, then of course I won't use the term hullucinary to describe that state unless I entertain the idea that my mental perceptions just do not match up with the "real world."  The point is that there could be a severe gap between the real world and my perceptions of it. 
As for the existence of other minds, one can infer their existence from their observed effects. Again, this is not faith; it is a rational inference, based on the law of causality, which is a corollary of the law of identity.
It's inference in terms of implication, not of entailment.  For it does not necessarily follow that a person who elicits conscious-like behavior is actually conscious.  Invoking the law of causality begs the question. 
It is not faith that tells me that if I leap from a tall building, I will plummet to my death; it is my knowledge of the law of gravity.
I never said it was faith.  :)

What you are "accepting" is that it is very UNLIKELY that you will be hit by a car and killed while walking to university, because this kind of fatal accident happens so seldom. You are not claiming to KNOW for certain that it won't happen. But you ARE claiming to know for certain that it is very unlikely to happen.
No, I'm accepting it to be true.  I'm accepting the proposition, "I will be alive tomorrow" to be true, and I'm acting according to it. 

Life is full of uncertainties which we determine to be more or less acceptable and with which we act in accordance, as if they were true. Ask any philosopher: they will tell you that, at most, the only real certainties are a priori mathematical or conceptual truths-- like 1+1 is 2.
Well, Rand is a philosopher, and she wouldn't tell you that. 
Right, because she doesn't know any better.  But if I were to press her on the issue, I'm sure she'd have to agree with me.  Because when I mean certainty in this strong sense, I mean necessity.  You always have the skeptic who will deny certain things that everyone else takes to be absolutely certain.  But the skeptic has no capacity to legitimately question the existence of inescapable, necessary truths, like the law of non-contradition, since (in this latter case) he would need to invoke the law in order to deny it.

I said: 
I say, mathematical theorems can be built on such narrow foundations, but life cannot.
William responded:  
And I say, life cannot be built on a belief in the supernatural, but death certainly can! Ask any Islamofascist.
Oh, come now.  We all know that Islamofascists compose less than 0.001% of the world's religious population.  We also know that only about 60 years ago, two atheistic regimes managed to kill off millions upon millions of people.  And even more, I mean, let's get serious, How many Christians do you know who are suicidal nihilists


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Post 18

Saturday, February 10, 2007 - 1:30amSanction this postReply
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I wrote, “The future will resemble the past, ceteris paribus, because existence is identity. The same things must act the same way under the same conditions, because the way something acts is a function of what it is.” GWL replied,
Right, but "what a thing is" is determined by the way we see it acting.
What a thing IS is not determined “by the way we see it acting”; how we IDENTIFY it is determined by the way we see it acting. A thing’s identity is independent of our identification of it. Whatever it is, it must have the characteristics it possesses and no others. Included in those characteristics is its mode of action under a given set of conditions. It could only have different characteristics if it were different.
You've put the cart before the horse. You want to say that the reason why the future will resemble the past with respect to identity over time is because this has to do with the definition of the thing's identity, but we define a thing's identity only by observing how it changes over time.
Not with the definition of the thing's identity; with the thing's identity itself. The future will resemble the past, all other things being equal, because existence is identity.

I wrote, “It could only act differently if it were different.”
When we describe things in our universe, we don't just describe them in themselves, though that is certainly the lion's share of metaphysics. We also describe them with reference to those things which act upon them, like the laws of physics. If the laws of physics were significantly altered, then things would be acting very differently, though they may not become much different in themselves.
Again, I am not talking about their descriptions, but about the things themselves. You are confusing identity with identification.

I wrote, “You accept your parents as loving you, because their actions reflect it. This is not faith; it is hard evidence.”
No, I accept it to be true that my parents love me based on hard evidence.
Same difference.
This acceptance can also be termed faith.
Why do you call it “faith,” if you are basing your belief on hard evidence?
There are no degrees of rational acceptance. I could not accept that my parents love me insofar as I have evidence that they do; this is just absurd.
You accept that your parents love you insofar as you have sufficient evidence that they do.
If someone were to ask me, "Do you believe your parents love you?" I would say, "Yes." I would not say (since it would be absurd to say) "I have good evidence for believing my parents love me." That doesn't answer the question, and the person would respond, "You speak of the sort of justification you have for belief, but I'm asking you: Do you believe your parents love you?" To this I can only rationally respond with a 'yes' or 'no' answer.
Of course, but I thought we were discussing the basis for your belief.

I wrote, “Rather than "represent" the external world, your sensory perceptions are OF the external world . . .”
The distinction seems to be purely nominal. What's the difference, other than wording?
If we say, your perceptions “represent” the external world, the implication is that what you’re aware of is a representation of the external world, not the external world itself.

“. . . as there is nothing else to perceive.”
Concepts and mathematics are a priori. We have every reason to think them innate.
According to Objectivism, concepts (including mathematical concepts) are not a priori, but are acquired experientially. Man is born tabula rasa (as a blank tablet), for he can have no knowledge of reality prior to any contact with it. To give a simple example, the concept 5 refers to a quantitative aspect of reality, namely |||||, and is acquired by observing different instances of such a quantity, like five oranges, five pencils, five lines, etc.

Citing Rand, I wrote, “A consciousness conscious of nothing is a contradiction in terms; a consciousness conscious of nothing but itself is a contradiction in terms; before it could identify itself as conscious; it would have to be conscious of something.”
How does this pertain to what I said?
I was simply stressing that what you perceive must be something other than an aspect of your awareness (i.e., a mental representation of the external world); it must be the external world itself, because in order to be conscious, a consciousness must be conscious of something other than itself.

I wrote, “How do you know that your brain is not in a vat? Well, if it were, the concept of ‘brain in a vat’ would have no meaning. ‘Brain in a vat’ in contrast to what?”
This is bad reasoning. Nothing against Hilary Putnam. He's a good philosopher and theistic to boot. But I must disagree with the idea that concepts which have been artificially stimulated have no meaning. They certainly have no meaning from the objective perspective, but for the brain-in-a-vat person, they have plenty of meaning. The brain-in-a-vat person knows what a vat is based on artificial brain stimulus; and what he imagines is that he might be placed in any sort of environment (like a vat) in which these stimulations are artificial (as opposed to natural...or derivative from the world as it is objectively).
The point is that he is presuming to know the difference between an illusion and reality, as a basis for conceiving of the “brain-in-a-vat” hypothesis, even though the hypothesis itself invalidates that knowledge. In other words, his hypothesis is self-refuting.

I wrote, “If what you are aware of is an hallucination, then what is an hallucination? An hallucination is understood only by reference to that which is NOT an hallucination, which is the real world -- the world of which you are presently aware.”
If I have been living my life from day one in a hallucinary [hallucinatory] state, then of course I won't use the term hullucinary [“hallucinatory"] to describe that state unless I entertain the idea that my mental perceptions just do not match up with the "real world." The point is that there could be a severe gap between the real world and my perceptions of it.
I don’t think you’re getting the point of my argument. “Hallucinatory” means at variance with reality, but you can’t know what “at variance with reality” means if you don’t know what reality is to begin with. If you don’t know what reality is, then you can’t know what it means to deviate from it. I can know what an hallucination is only because I recognize it as departing from what I know to be the real world.

I wrote, “As for the existence of other minds, one can infer their existence from their observed effects. Again, this is not faith; it is a rational inference, based on the law of causality, which is a corollary of the law of identity.”
It's inference in terms of implication, not of entailment. For it does not necessarily follow that a person who elicits [exhibits] conscious-like behavior is actually conscious.
But it does follow that a person who exhibits conscious behavior is actually conscious. And we can tell the difference between conscious-like behavior and conscious behavior.
Invoking the law of causality begs the question.
No, it doesn’t. Causal inferences are entirely legitimate. It does not beg the question for me to infer that if I leap from a tall building, I will plummet to my death. It is a valid and reasonable inference, one based on the law of causality.

I wrote, “What you are ‘accepting’ is that it is very UNLIKELY that you will be hit by a car and killed while walking to university, because this kind of fatal accident happens so seldom. You are not claiming to KNOW for certain that it won't happen. But you ARE claiming to know for certain that it is very unlikely to happen.”
No, I'm accepting it to be true. I'm accepting the proposition, "I will be alive tomorrow" to be true, and I'm acting according to it.
On the contrary, what you’re accepting as true is that it is very likely you will be alive tomorrow. Truth is a property of propositions, and the proposition that you are accepting as true is not that you will necessarily be alive tomorrow, but that it is very likely that you will be alive tomorrow.

GWL wrote, “Life is full of uncertainties which we determine to be more or less acceptable and with which we act in accordance, as if they were true. Ask any philosopher: they will tell you that, at most, the only real certainties are a priori mathematical or conceptual truths-- like 1+1 is 2.”

I replied, “Well, Rand is a philosopher, and she wouldn't tell you that."
Right, because she doesn't know any better.
Oh, please!
But if I were to press her on the issue, I'm sure she'd have to agree with me.
Spoken like a true sophomore! ;-)
Because when I mean certainty in this strong sense, I mean necessity.
So do I and so does Rand. The law of identity is a necessary truth (there is no other kind), and existence IS identity. Everything – every existent -- must act according to its nature. To deny this truth is to endorse a contradiction. It is a necessary truth that birds can fly but man cannot, that ice can float but rocks cannot, that gold is a precious metal but tin is not. Every true proposition is necessarily true in the sense that it could not possibly be false.

GLW wrote, “I say, mathematical theorems can be built on such narrow foundations, but life cannot.”

I replied, “And I say, life cannot be built on a belief in the supernatural, but death certainly can! Ask any Islamofascist.
Oh, come now. We all know that Islamofascists compose less than 0.001% of the world's religious population. We also know that only about 60 years ago, two atheistic regimes managed to kill off millions upon millions of people. And even more, I mean, let's get serious, How many Christians do you know who are suicidal nihilists?
Well, if you live for the sake of obeying God’s commandments, then if God tells you to sacrifice your life for some cause or for the welfare of others, you must do it. You must obey God’s commandments rather than pursue your own self-interest. And that, I submit, is a form of suicide. You are placing the commandments of God above your own needs and values. For instance, Catholics cannot practice artificial birth control, nor can they have abortions. So, if a woman becomes pregnant accidentally, but cannot afford another child, she must carry the fetus to term and then make sure that she finds a decent home for her offspring. If she cannot find a suitable foster home, she must raise the child herself, even though doing so can take years off her life. A Christian must obey the dictates of her religion, even if it conflicts with her own her interest and her survival requirements.

- Bill





Post 19

Sunday, February 11, 2007 - 9:39pmSanction this postReply
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I very much appreciate the intelligence of your responses.  You raise many good points which deserve more attention than what has heretofore been given them.  I hope, therefore, that you'll find my next few posts to be products of significantly more deliberation, and not so hastily written as to require your grammatical correction.     

What a thing IS is not determined “by the way we see it acting”; how we IDENTIFY it is determined by the way we see it acting. A thing’s identity is independent of our identification of it. Whatever it is, it must have the characteristics it possesses and no others. Included in those characteristics is its mode of action under a given set of conditions. It could only have different characteristics if it were different.
I would dispute the point that whatever a thing is, it must have the characteristics it possesses and no others.  True enough, it must retain its essential characterists, otherwise it would cease to be itself.  But acquisition or loss of accidental characteristics ought not to have a substantial affect on what an entity is.  For example, if Socrates were to acquire the accidental property of a tan, though we could refer to Socrates before and after his tanning as 'white Socrates' and 'tanned Socrates' (respectively), we would in both cases still be referring to the same entity, viz. Socrates.

You would have it that among an entity's essential characteristics is "its mode of action under a given set of conditions."  I agree with this much, but deny the inference you make from this, i.e. that "it could only have different characteristics if it were different."  This is because I maintain that the laws of nature could be changed such that an entity could be placed under conditions completely foreign to those permitted by our own universe.  Under these inconceivable conditions, the entity would necessarily be shown to have inconceivable characteristics, according to your inference.  But this is absurd, because, as you've rightly said, among an entity's essential characteristics is its mode of action under a given set of conditions, though here I've suggested a case in which, as it were, the conditions of the conditions have been changed, such that the entity takes on different characteristics (based on its acting under different universal circumstances) even though the entity itself has not changed.

My point, then, is a practical one.  Though we are justified in believing that "the future will resemble the past, certeris paribus", it is not as if such a proposition is a necessary truth.  For in the statement "the future will resemble the past, ceteris paribus" lies the hidden assumption that "all things being equal" only applies to what is possible within this universe, under its own particular laws of nature.  But this universe and its particular laws of nature are not logically necessary.  (I shall discuss this point later). 

I wrote, "When we describe things in our universe, we don't just describe them in themselves, though that is certainly the lion's share of metaphysics. We also describe them with reference to those things which act upon them, like the laws of physics. If the laws of physics were significantly altered, then things would be acting very differently, though they may not become much different in themselves."

You responded: 
Again, I am not talking about their descriptions, but about the things themselves. You are confusing identity with identification.
I stressed the descriptions of things over things-in-themselves in order to emphasize the contingency of these things, and to show that what you take to be the fundamental identity of a thing (as opposed to its description) is in fact conditioned by a contingent universe.

William wrote:   
You accept your parents as loving you, because their actions reflect it. This is not faith; it is hard evidence.
To this, I responded, "No, I accept it to be true that my parents love me based on hard evidence."

To which William wrote: 
Same difference.
No, not the same difference.  Faith is intellectual assent, whereas hard evidence is what influences intellectual assent.  You speak as though faith merely means 'the absence of evidence', such that faith and hard evidence compose a disjunction.  But this is simply not how I'm employing the word. 

Indeed, though you might often hear people say, "He had no evidence; he took it on faith", this is not the way I use the word.  What I mean by 'faith' is 'intellectual assent' or 'belief'.   

William wrote: 
If we say, your perceptions “represent” the external world, the implication is that what you’re aware of is a representation of the external world, not the external world itself.

I would say that perceptions represent the external world to us, and would hold that we are aware of the external world insofar as we are aware of our perceptions of it.     
According to Objectivism, concepts (including mathematical concepts) are not a priori, but are acquired experientially. Man is born tabula rasa (as a blank tablet), for he can have no knowledge of reality prior to any contact with it. 
In my opinion, the tabula rasa understanding of the human mind is both philosophically and scientifically repugnant.  Philosophically, the idea is without merit, since it somehow maintains that necessary truths like 1+1=2 and the absurdity of the conjunction A^~A can be deduced from particular representative examples.  It makes much more sense to say that geometrical, mathematical, and logical truths exist latently in the human mind, and that experience is what triggers our awareness of them.  The tabula rasa notion also flies in the face of scientific studies, which have shown that the brain is in a certain sense 'preprogrammed' to organize and assess conceptual relationships and hardwired to react in certain ways to sense-perception, to monitor certain emotions, and to process thought in terms of language. 
To give a simple example, the concept 5 refers to a quantitative aspect of reality, namely |||||, and is acquired by observing different instances of such a quantity, like five oranges, five pencils, five lines, etc.
No, the concept of 5 is present in the mind before the mind perceives 5 entities as |||||.  For, when the mind perceives |||||, it understands them to be 5 by a correspondence between the inherent concept of 5 and its application to reality.  
I was simply stressing that what you perceive must be something other than an aspect of your awareness (i.e., a mental representation of the external world); it must be the external world itself, because in order to be conscious, a consciousness must be conscious of something other than itself.
If you believe the mind to be tabula rasa, you are forced to admit this.  But tabula rasa seems dubious at best.  Furthermore, I find that, even if your principle could be true for us, it could not be true for God.  For God is not a composite of mind and body, but is rather pure consciousness, such that his self-awareness is immediate and timeless.  Indeed, God's understanding is his being, whereas our understanding is derivative of our being.  There is no 'external world' for God, since God is immediately present to all things as a cause is to its effect. 
I don’t think you’re getting the point of my argument. “Hallucinatory” means at variance with reality, but you can’t know what “at variance with reality” means if you don’t know what reality is to begin with. If you don’t know what reality is, then you can’t know what it means to deviate from it. I can know what an hallucination is only because I recognize it as departing from what I know to be the real world. 

This is arguing in a circle.  You cannot argue that our perceptions represent something 'real' because they must needs have access to the real in order to come up with the notion of 'imaginary'.  Indeed, imaginary could just mean 'at variance with what is perceived to be real'.  Take the brain in a vat example once again.  Now, as I've said, it is possible to stimulate the brain in such a way as to make it perceive things which, from a third person perspective, do not exist.  A supercomputer could be attached to a brain-in-a-vat, such that the brain's mind would be subjected to extremely complex stimulations.  The brain could be duped into believing that its perceptions represented real things, though it would in fact be the case that the supercomputer was merely triggering the brain to perceive certain non-existent things.  Now, from the perspective of the mind inhering in the brain-in-a-vat, this would all seem real.  In fact, its perceptions would be indistinguishable from the perceptions of the scientists monitoring its activity.  But the scientists would know that their perceptions were actually real (or might not they also be the victims of the same sort of scientific experiment?).  Anyway, suppose these same scientists, in order to be philosophically irritating, opted to have the programmed supercomputer create 'dreams' for the brain-in-a-vat.  Let's say they deliberately designed these dreams to be incoherent, perhaps, or fanciful, so that the brain-in-a-vat would be convinced that they were at variance with what he perceived (falsely) to be reality.  A dream within a dream...And the brain-in-a-vat would not require access to the 'real world' in order to be capable of imagining an unreal world.  His imagined world would be part of a greater imaginary world, from the third person perspective. 

William wrote: 
...[A] person who exhibits conscious behavior is actually conscious. And we can tell the difference between conscious-like behavior and conscious behavior. 
Again, since we are not capable of crawling inside the minds of other people, all we can strictly conclude is that a person exhibits conscious-like behavior (i.e. that he acts in a way which appears to be conscious).  How are we to know persons are actually conscious?  We can only be aware of our own consciousness.  Indeed, we will soon be capable of creating algorithms for computers so that they will be able to 'communicate' with us.  But this is just input-output.  The computer receives certain symbols and it knows which signals to fire back.  It doesn't really know the language, though.  It doesn't fully understand what it's doing.  There is no supervening consciousness.    

I wrote that "invoking the law of causality begs the question" with respect to consciousness being behind conscious-like behavior. 

William responded: 
Causal inferences are entirely legitimate. It does not beg the question for me to infer that if I leap from a tall building, I will plummet to my death. It is a valid and reasonable inference, one based on the law of causality.
You misunderstood me.  I agree that causal inferences, when employed properly, are entirely legitimate.  But to say that you can draw the inference from conscious-like behavior to a consciousness behind such behavior is conclusion-begging.  You've done nothing but assume that actual consciousness underlies conscious-like behavior. 
On the contrary, what you’re accepting as true is that it is very likely you will be alive tomorrow. Truth is a property of propositions, and the proposition that you are accepting as true is not that you will necessarily be alive tomorrow, but that it is very likely that you will be alive tomorrow.
Again, conflating actuality and necessity.  Of course I wouldn't accept the proposition "I necessarily will be alive tomorrow," since it's not even necessary that I exist at all.  If my parents hadn't met, I would not be here.  I rather accept the proposition "I will be alive tomorrow" to be actually true. 

The law of identity is a necessary truth (there is no other kind), and existence IS identity. Everything – every existent -- must act according to its nature. To deny this truth is to endorse a contradiction. It is a necessary truth that birds can fly but man cannot, that ice can float but rocks cannot, that gold is a precious metal but tin is not. Every true proposition is necessarily true in the sense that it could not possibly be false.
You simply do not understand what necessity is.  Absolute necessity takes the form:  Necessarily, x.  You are talking about necessity of the consequence, i.e. if x, then (necessarily) y.  For you are saying, 'Given the universe as it is, and the laws of nature as they are, (necessarily) men cannot fly.'  But I object, for I say that, since it is not necessary that the universe exist or be like ours, it does not follow as a necessary truth that men cannot fly.  On the contrary, I believe there are logically (and, of course, metaphysically) possible worlds in which men can and do fly.
Well, if you live for the sake of obeying God’s commandments, then if God tells you to sacrifice your life for some cause or for the welfare of others, you must do it. You must obey God’s commandments rather than pursue your own self-interest. And that, I submit, is a form of suicide.
False.  Catholics take it as a maxim that obeying God's commandments will always be in our (at least long-term) self-interest.  
You are placing the commandments of God above your own needs and values.
There is no such opposition.     
Catholics cannot practice artificial birth control, nor can they have abortions. So, if a woman becomes pregnant accidentally, but cannot afford another child, she must carry the fetus to term and then make sure that she finds a decent home for her offspring. If she cannot find a suitable foster home, she must raise the child herself, even though doing so can take years off her life. A Christian must obey the dictates of her religion, even if it conflicts with her own her interest and her survival requirements.
This is because Christians, in placing the interests of God above their own selfishness, truly act in their own self-interest by demonstrating a love for God, a love which God ratifies by offering them communion with him in eternity. 

"Survival requirements"?  The human mortality rate is 100%, William.  Even the universe is tending toward a heat-death.             

-Leibniz           

(Edited by Gottfried Wilhelm Leibniz on 2/12, 6:48am)


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