About
Content
Store
Forum

Rebirth of Reason
War
People
Archives
Objectivism

Post to this threadMark all messages in this thread as readMark all messages in this thread as unreadBack one pagePage 0Page 1Page 2Page 3Page 4Forward one pageLast Page


Post 60

Tuesday, March 6, 2007 - 12:05pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit

 
Brady,

Thanks for taking the initiative and reviving the discussion.
Well, to be frank, the discussion is still dead. Your most current post does not offer a resolution to the question at hand, but simply jumps to another problem.

I am not really interested in debating indirect or direct realism at this time; so I will leave your article for latter. But I will offer a couple of comments that may help you in your own thinking on this and other matters.

There are 2 ways to prove something:

1) By providing incontrovertible evidence for it
2) By providing incontrovertible evidence against its opposition

Once one opposite view of something has been shown to be false (via its inescapable absurdity; i.e., by a Reductio ad Absurdum argument), then the opposing view -- to the absurd one -- can (should) be accepted as true by a rational thinker. Indirect Realism has been shown to be absurd (see link above), so it's reasonable for me (or anyone) to assent to the truth of the opposite view (Direct Realism).

Does that quench your curiosity about my intellectual confidence in this matter?

The problem here is that you have mistaken a contrary for a contradictory. If we take a look at the square of oppositions, we will find that a contradiction is such that if one contradictory is true the other is false and if one is false, the other is true. But a contrary is such that if one is true the other is false but not vice versa. In other words, if a contrary is false, it doesn't mean its opposite is true, they both could logically be false. A contrary is what we have with your above argument.

Now you could use a disjunctive syllogism in the way you do above, if and only if all other possibilities are first shown false. For instance, the main question of our discussion is, do your perceptions tell you anything about the world around you? This is one such possibility. If the answer to that is, No, then both direct and indirect realism would be false. Before you can answer the secondary question, you must first answer the primary question.

So, if you come up with a resolution to our primary question, then the discussion will be revived and we can continue on.

I hope that you are beginning to realize that given the basic propositions of naturalism (i.e. God does not exist and the world around us does exist) you just don't have the elements needed to resolve this issue. It actually goes even further, given those elements, it is not only perceptions you have a problem with. Naturalism makes all knowledge impossible, such that if knowledge exists, naturalism (and all atheistic cosmologies) are false, and if naturalism (or any other atheistic cosmology) is true, then there is no knowledge.

But, perhaps that is also for another day.

G. Brady Lenardos

(Edited by G. Brady Lenardos on 3/06, 12:10pm)


Sanction: 4, No Sanction: 0
Sanction: 4, No Sanction: 0
Post 61

Tuesday, March 6, 2007 - 11:17pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
Brady,

Now you could use a disjunctive syllogism in the way you do above, if and only if all other possibilities are first shown false. For instance, the main question of our discussion is, do your perceptions tell you anything about the world around you? This is one such possibility. If the answer to that is, No, then both direct and indirect realism would be false. Before you can answer the secondary question, you must first answer the primary question.

So, if you come up with a resolution to our primary question, then the discussion will be revived and we can continue on.

Ohhhh, I get it now. In order for us to arrive at that place where we get to speak freely about Perceptual Realism (that conclusion that the world actually exists), I have to first prove false its CONTRADICTION (i.e., Ontological Idealism or, if you will, OI! ... for short). Okay, I guess I'm up for that.

You see, Brady -- I'm a fast learner, aren't I?!

Okay, okay ... so where do I start? Ah yes, now I remember! The philosophical obligation that I am here and now being called upon to discharge, is to reveal an internal (i.e., irreconcilable) contradiction with Ontological Idealism -- that idea that everything's just an idea.

Ontological Idealism (OI!). The "conclusion" that all of our supposed perceptions are merely just a well-placed string of consistent hallucinations (i.e., that the concept of "perception" is, in actuality, meaningless). Okay. Let's see where we can go with this.

First (A) there's the problem of our already having some hallucinations -- you know, those things which we have learned to differentiate from our "real" perceptions. If we're really having hallucinations when we're having them, then it appears that OI! is false. This is so because, if OI! were true, then whenever we've experienced that which we have distinguished as a hallucination (i.e., a "false" perception), we were ACTUALLY experiencing a "false" hallucination (i.e., a "true" perception).

Well, I'm done now (I've revealed a contradiction with OI!), but I'm going to go on and do this in a few other ways. The reason that I'm doing this redundantly now -- is that I have the sneaky suspicion that a given contradiction won't phase you, Brady (so I'm giving you 3 of them instead).

Alright then, a second (B) way in which OI! is contradictory (as an epistemological theory), is to not even be a theory in the first place (but to merely be masquerading as a theory). So, what's a theory? Over at m-w.com, they say it's this ...

a plausible or scientifically acceptable general principle or body of principles offered to explain phenomena
Okay then, so there are 3 ingredients for every real theory in existence ...

1) it's either plausible (which means more than merely "non-impossible"), or scientifically acceptable
2) it's product is a principle, or body of them
3) it explains phenomena

And, if any of these 3 things are missing in some kind of given explanation for anything, then that kind of explanation is not a theory at all.

Okay, now let's look at OI! once again, only this time through words penned by Rudolf Carnap (The Logical Structure of the World: Pseudo-problems in Philosophy) ...
 
... the thesis of realism ... 1. ... 'reality of the external world'; 2. ... 'reality of the heteropsychological' [reality of other minds existing] ... the thesis of idealism is identified with the corresponding denials (the second of them however is maintained only by a certain radical idealistic position) ... : 1. the external world is not itself real, but only the perceptions or representations of it are ... ; 2. only my own processes of consciousness are real; the so-called conscious processes of others are merely constructions or even fictions. ... do these express a fact (no matter whether an existent or non-existent one) or are they merely pseudo statements, made with the vain intention of expressing accompanying object representation in the form of statements, as if they were factual representations? We shall find that the latter is indeed the case, so that these theses have no content; they are not statements at all. Hence the question about the correctness of these theses cannot be raised.
So, because OI! doesn't express or represent anything that could be ever be known to have a truth value (i.e., a "potential" fact) -- it's not even a theory (that could ever be known, or shown, to use any kind of principles to correctly explain any phenomena that we've ever encountered).

Alright, whew! Those are 2 contradictions, with 1 more to go ...

Another way (C) in which OI! can be shown to involve undeniable contradiction was given by Rand (in Galt's Speech). Please forgive if Bill has already posted the quote earlier. In order to educationally understand the context of the quote, it's useful to remember that a crux of OI! is that a consciousness is the genesis of existence (what Rand called a Primacy of Consciousness) -- creating it ex nihilo -- rather than existence just simply existing, for us to then identify with our consciousness faculties ...

If nothing exists, there can be no consciousness: a consciousness with nothing to be conscious of is a contradiction in terms. A consciousness conscious of nothing but itself is a contradiction in terms: before it could identify itself as consciousness, it had to be conscious of something.
Here they are again -- 3 contradictions (A, B, and C); and all for the price of one!

A) the "problem" of hallucination
B) the "problem" of non-expression/non-representation of any factual matter
C) the "problem" of existence

Do you care to "take a stab" at these, Brady?

Ed

(Edited by Ed Thompson on 3/06, 11:26pm)

(Edited by Ed Thompson on 3/06, 11:27pm)


Post 62

Thursday, March 8, 2007 - 5:49pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
Ed wrote:

Brady,


Now you could use a disjunctive syllogism in the way you do above, if and only if all other possibilities are first shown false. For instance, the main question of our discussion is, do your perceptions tell you anything about the world around you? This is one such possibility. If the answer to that is, No, then both direct and indirect realism would be false. Before you can answer the secondary question, you must first answer the primary question.

So, if you come up with a resolution to our primary question, then the discussion will be revived and we can continue on.

Ohhhh, I get it now. In order for us to arrive at that place where we get to speak freely about Perceptual Realism (that conclusion that the world actually exists), I have to first prove false its CONTRADICTION (i.e., Ontological Idealism or, if you will, OI! ... for short). Okay, I guess I'm up for that.

You see, Brady -- I'm a fast learner, aren't I?!
Once again, you missed the real problem. You do not need the "conclusion that the world actually exists." Remember proposition 2? I already gave you that. The question is, as it always has been, can you justify your perceptions as having any correlation to the world?

We have been jumping around from Realism to Idealism, and who knows where you will want to jump to next. The problem you have is with the core implication of your basic propositions. Allow me to quote myself from post 28:

The first two point make up one of two possible atheistic cosmological positions. This one is called, Naturism or Naturalism, depending on how loosely you want to play with these terms. There is one other point that flows from this cosmology. This is called accedentalism or unintentionalism. The antithesis to accedentalism is intentionalism. All cosmological positions hold to one of these two. I think you can readily see why William's view demands accedentalism; it is one of the few cosmologies that are so obvious. Accedentalism says that everything is what it is by accident or unintentionally, in other words there is no intent. Intentionalism says that everything is what it is by intent. This would require an intender.
So, if everything is what it is by accident, there is no real reason for it (if there was a reason for it, it wouldn't be an accident!). When I ask you to "justify your perceptions as having any correlation to the world," I am asking you for a reason. Your core says there is no reason. You will always lose this argument. The most you can say, and still be rationally consistent is, "I don't know." This, of course, is Hume's point.

Now, if it would be helpful to you, I will point out the logical fallacies of the three arguments you presented in your last post. But you must realize that by offering any argument (i.e. reason), you are denying the core implication of your propositions. Accidentalism and intentionalism are an antithesis. So, a denial of accidentalism is an affirmation of intentionalism, and intentionallism requires an Intender.

Let me know what you want to do.

Brady



Post 63

Thursday, March 8, 2007 - 7:06pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit

The universe or existence is not contingent, since there is nothing on which it could be contingent. Existence is all there is.

If there is a God, whose existence is necessary, then it follows that the rest of existence, i.e. that which He creates, is contingent, so long as God does not create out of necessity.  If you would like me to use the term 'universe' to refer to both God and that which He creates, that is fine, but it makes more sense to make a distinction between the two by calling only the latter the 'universe', since this follows from their modal difference. 

 

I wrote:  "We do not determine necessary and contingent truths via imagination in general. Necessary truths have this distinguishing characteristic: if they are thought or understood, they are self-evidently true. Understanding that 2 plus 2 equals 4 is all one needs to do to realize its necessity. By contrast, my understanding that when people tan, they turn brown (not blue) does not suffice to prove it necessarily true."

 

William responded: 

There is no essential difference between these two examples. In order to know that when people tan they turn brown rather than blue, you have to identify a certain relationship in reality. Once having made the relevant observation, you can know that the proposition that people (with a certain melanin content to their skin) turn brown rather than blue when exposed to the sun is necessarily true.

No, you know it is true for all the cases with which you're familiar, but not necessarily true.  There could, after all, be persons of which we do not know whose skin turns blue, instead of brown, upon solar exposure.  The proposition itself, "All people who tan turn brown", does not become recognizably true upon understanding it.  By contrast, the proposition,"Two plus two equals four" becomes self-evidently true upon understanding what it expresses. 

Similarly, in order to know that 2+2=4, you have to identify a relationship between certain quantitative aspects of reality – that two units of something added to two other units of it equal four units. 

This does not follow, because the numerical relationship does not require empirical information in order to be seen as self-evidently true.  The concepts themselves, which are innate, allow them to be seen as such, because only concepts can be universal. 

Once having made the identification and learned the relationship, one can know that the proposition that 2+2=4 (that 2 units plus 2 units equals 4 units) is necessarily true. 

One cannot know that the expression is necessary via empiricism, but only true.  For empiricism only delivers particular instances of truth to us. 

 

I wrote:  "I do not wish to challenge the law of identity. But the dividing line between essential and accidental properties is very fuzzy, and what we commonly take to be the laws of nature are not ineluctable. To illustrate the former, all we need to do is wonder whether an alligator with Socrates' brain transplanted and connected to it would in fact still be Socrates."

 

William responded:

If, by "Socrates," you simply mean his soul (i.e., his mind and its contents), then yes; however, if by "Socrates," you mean the entire person including the rest of his physical body, then no. An alligator with Socrates' brain transplanted and connected to it would be a strange creature, half-man, half-alligator, but it would not be Socrates in the conventional sense of the person to whom that name has traditionally been applied.

I asked this question as a sort of litmus test.  For it seems to me that you are willing to accept the distinction between accidental and essential characteristics only with regard to abstracted concepts, referred to by names, and not to that which actually exists 'out there'.  This poses a problem, though, because you are committed to the idea that things only act according to their nature(s).  However, if natures just are the things they are (i.e. if existence is identity) then how can you possibly say anything meaningful about reality?  It appears you are trapped into a sort of undifferentiated pantheism, because being able to differentiate things requires that these things, in themselves, have both essential and accidental properties. 

The laws of nature don't break down. These laws pertain to a specific context involving entities of a specific nature. What breaks down is the physical context in which the laws are manifested.

Right, so if the context changes, so do the laws. 

 

I wrote:  "All of [a thing's] characteristics aren't derivable from its identity alone, for surely how it acts on other bodies has largely to do with the laws of material interaction.

 

William responded: 

How it acts on other bodies is one of its characteristics.

This is Leibniz's idea, but only his version works, because he believes that all concepts are a priori contained in the Mind of God.  You, on the other hand, believe that the concept is only a derivative of the thing.  But this is problematic, because you have no way of knowing (or determining) which latent properties belong to what.  Some explanation is in order.  Think about this:  on your view, it could be that it is a property of the boat moving downstream to push the water, not a property of the water to push the boat.  According to your theory, we have no way of knowing which it is, because anything that happens is ascribed willy-nilly to some sort of latent "power" within the thing.  And you have no way of showing where the power is, since you only see the power, and not its source. 

 

I wrote:  "Careful, you are very near to giving up human free will. For, if one can only act in a manner conditioned by one's antecedent characteristics (brain states, physical location, causal relations), one is not free (in any real sense of the term). In short, one has no power over determining his personal characteristics, since one only can "discover" them."

 

William responded: 

Not true. Even if one's actions are ultimately determined by antecedent causes, such as one's heredity and environment, one can still be said to determine one's personal characteristics. For example, one can attend university and become a better educated person. One's action of attending university will then be the proximate cause of one's becoming better educated, even if heredity and environment are the remote causes.

How does one determine one's personal characteristics, if one has no control over them either?  On your view, everything that happens from the moment of a person's conception is determined by antecedent causes, thereby making the person himself responsible for nothing, and thereby depriving the person of free will.  Proximate causes won't help you, because they can be traced back to causes outside of your personal history. 

 

There is no rejection of free will here, as the capacity for choosing among alternatives can itself be regarded as one of man’s characteristics that determines how he acts (viz., by consciously choosing his behavior), even if that choice it itself determined by his previous values.


But since the person does not choose (at all) his previous values, how is he free (if his actions are determined by his previous values)?    

Aristotle to the contrary notwithstanding, essence is epistemological, not metaphysical.

Though this makes your system collapse into a picture of the 'real world' as undifferentiated flux, as I've shown. 

And modern philosophy to the contrary notwithstanding, causal necessity is based on logic, because the law of causality is a corollary of the law of identity. 

The law of causality is not a corollary of the law of identity.  Indeed, there is no way of deriving the former from the latter in any reliable manner (as I've shown with the boat/stream example above).   

If one thing the same in nature at different times, or two things the same in nature, are to act in situations the same in their nature, they must act on both occasions in the same way[...]

...given that they in fact have the same nature.  But since their inner composition, or nature, is unknown to us, we have no way of determing which natures are responsible for certain actions.  We see correlations, not causes. 

In short, everything must act according to its nature, because existence is identity.

Identity is self-evident; causation is not.  Thus, saying that "everything must act according to its nature" is a statement of dogmatism.  We have no way of infallibly determining from where the action comes. 

If you have the same entities, then you must have the same laws, because a law of nature is simply an expression of how entities behave under various conditions. It is simply an expression of their identities.

This is a repetition of the above dogma.   

A “reason for existing” is an explanation for why something exists; it presupposes an antecedent cause.

There is nothing that causes two plus two to equal four.  It just is.  Because it's necessary. 

All truths, not simply mathematical ones, become self-evident through analysis, once a person grasps their empirical foundations – their basis in the real world

It assumes too much.  Only necessary truths become self-evident through analysis.  There is no way that empirical foundations can demonstrate necessity.  I challenge you:  give me an account of how they do, since you think they can. 

What I am saying is that whatever a thing is at any point in time, it is what it is, which is all of its characteristics at that particular time, including its action and its capacity for change. 

How do you differentiate what it is?

The Socratic alligator that you referred to above is what it is -- it has an identity, just as the conventional Socrates did, even if it is no longer the person whom we would normally identify as "Socrates".


How can you say that the pond in which the alligator floats is not part of the alligator?  In a certain sense, on your view, the whole universe must be 'contained' in the alligator. 

 

William wrote: 

You don’t perceive your perceptions; you perceive the object of your perceptions, and are aware of the world directly, not via a representation of it. If you were aware only of a representation of it, then you couldn’t know that what you are aware of is a true representation, since you’d have no independent verification that that what you are aware of corresponds to the external world.

I responded:  "This is dogmatism."

 

To which William quipped: 

But, of course, divine pre-established harmony is not dogmatism!

No, it isn't.  Brain/mind parallelism is explanatory.  By contrast, we do not need to postulate an external world which "matches up" with our mental perceptions, as you say.  Thus, what you say is dogmatism, because it does no explanatory work.         

Just as you don’t perceive your perceptions, you don’t sense your sensations.

A dispute over words, this.  You seem to be trying to show that 'perception' is a word which implies a thing there to be perceived.  Very well, then.  Let us call what is normally described as 'perception', 'tryception', and let it be immediate mental phenomena.  Having done this, notice that this statement... 

What you are aware of is the external world through your means of perception

...becomes dogmatism, since it is superfluous.  What I'm 'trycepting' is what I'm trycepting.  Because existence is identity.  ;)

 

I wrote: 

"Yes, if you were only aware of a representation of it, you couldn't know directly that what you are aware of is a true representation. But you could believe in the truth of these representations."

 

William responded: 

On what grounds?

Because it appears that there is a real world. 

By the law of identity, all truths are necessary, i.e., could not have been otherwise, because existence is identity, and a thing must act according to its nature. Is this fact incompatible with choice? No, because a person’s choices are necessitated by his value judgments.

And his value judgments are necessitated.  And so are his birth parents and his environmental placement, which entirely determine what he will be.  What place is there for free will, on this view?          

Take the proposition, “All swans are white.” If the referent of this proposition is all the swans in existence, whether observed or not, then one cannot know that the proposition is true, because there might exist a black swan. (And black swans were in fact discovered.) But the proposition “Some swans are white” can be known to be true (and is, in the language of modern philosophy, a “necessary truth”), despite the fact that its truth is grasped only through experience and is therefore not “a priori.”

I would put it differently:  If all swans are white, then it follows necessarily that the proposition 'All swans are white is true'.  But it is not necessarily true that all swans are white in the first place. 

We think in terms of concepts, but our concepts are formed by first observing and then by classifying the things out there.

How are we classifying anything, without the use of concepts?   

How can you organize sensory information before receiving it?

The information (innate ideas) awoken by the senses is already there, in a latent form. 

We experience the world in a certain way – three dimensionally – given the nature of our senses, but that does not mean that three-dimensionality is an innate idea. The idea of three dimensions had to be formed via a process of abstraction from observation.

Geometrical truths (e.g. those having to do with three dimensionalism) are innate, but fuzzy or confused before they are brought to full consciousness. 

 

I wrote:  "Furthermore, if all concepts are formed by abstracting from sense-impression, from where does the concept of a concept come?"

 

William responded: 

By abstracting from abstractions, which are themselves formed by abstracting from concretes. For example, the concept ‘furniture’ is an abstraction from abstractions, which is formed by identifying what chairs, tables, desks, etc. have in common as against other features of human habitation, such as doors, windows, pictures, etc.

I'm not sure if this works.  Certainly abstraction, as you put it, could be taken a long way, but the concept of a concept leaps, as it were, away from the object of abstraction.  The gap it jumps places it on a side unsullied by sense-impression. 

One forms the concept of ‘concept’ in a similar way, by observing that different (implicitly held) concepts have something in common as against other aspects of conscious awareness, such as percepts, sensations, feelings, etc., from which they are being differentiated.

I'll ask the same question I asked before:  How do we abstract without concepts? 

No concepts are a priori. " . . . The same principle applies in forming the concept of a particular number (say, two). One observes that a group of two oranges and a group of two apples, say, bear a greater numerical similarity to each other than either does to a group of three oranges or to a group of four apples. In so doing, one isolates what the groups of two have in common as against the other groups, and thereby forms the abstraction ‘two’, which one then designates by the visual-auditory symbol 'two' or '2.' The same principle of concept formation pertains to numerical concepts as to any other concept."

How can you give an account of how the 'concept of a particular number' is formed by noticing a 'numerical similarity'?  This is terribly circular. 

Initially, you observe a quantity of two oranges perceptually -- O O -- without identifying the quantity conceptually or giving it a name. Only after you recognize their quantitative similarity to another group of two objects -- | | -- are you then able to form the concept of 'two'. 


This doesn't work, either.  There is no way to "recognize" the "quantitative similarity" between the two quantities of things without recourse to the concept of the quantity in the first place.  There is no way to make judgments about two disparate perceptions other than via concepts. 

What you want to say is that the being of things conforms itself to a necessity of thought. But once you put it that way, the fallacy becomes obvious. Reality doesn’t conform itself to our thoughts; our thoughts, if they are to be accurate and true, must conform to the being of things.


This isn't how I see it.  If God exists, his thoughts are that to which the created order conforms.  And His being, n.b., is coeternal with his thought, which means that the being and the thought are given equal status as determining what is true. 

One can also prove one’s own existence extrospectively, by observing one’s physical body. 

That doesn't prove it's there.  Remember the brain-in-a-vat scenario. 

In any case, one’s existence does not depend on one’s recognition of it; one’s recognition of it depends on one’s existence.

True enough, but our existence depends on a thought of God.   

We have to distinguish between perceptual awareness and conceptual understanding or propositional knowledge. Of course, propositional knowledge depends on the identification and integration of that which one experiences, but without the initial experience itself, no such identification and integration is possible.

Experiences are necessary to 'call out', as it were, our innate ideas. 

Experiences in the womb, such as they are, are experiences of the external world. But a fetus does not think in the normally understood sense of that word, let alone introspect. Of course, there is a mental world, -- an “in here,” so to speak -- which is identified by introspection, but before a consciousness can have any kind of mental content, it must be aware of something external to itself.

It makes more sense to think that the ideas exist in the subconsciousness, and then are called up to the consciousness once the self interacts with perceptions. 

Mental contents refer ultimately to information obtained extrospectively. Hume’s example of a golden mountain is relevant here. Even though there is no such thing as a golden mountain, one acquires the ideas of “golden” and “mountain” from observing reality.

"Golden" and "mountain" possess properties which go beyond the mathematical, logical, and geometrical.  Hence, I do not propose they are innate.  Therefore, you strike at a straw man. 

Well, you may not be able to experience what another conscious organism experiences, but you can observe that the organism is conscious.

How? 

You’re not denying that other people and other animals are conscious, are you?

No, I don't deny it.  But I do doubt that it can be "known" per your theory of knowledge. 

And even if you had not observed other people or animals, you are certainly aware of the fact that your own consciousness is a faculty of a living organism and is dependent on a brain and physical senses.

True, which is why I can be sure that I am conscious. 

First of all, you're not suggesting, are you, that I could have pure two in my pocket, or pure two on the dining room table!

Of course not, because that would imply that numbers have spatio-temporal characteristics, which they obviously do not.   

You don’t have to have the concept “two” in order to perceive a group of two entities, any more than you have to have the concept chair in order to perceive a chair.

A 'chair' is a name given to what appears to us to have the qualities of a chair.  The concept two is not derived from perception in this way-- for the simple reason that there is no tenable account of how it could be. 

A concept is formed from observing that certain objects are similar enough to be grouped together (as against other objects that are different enough to be excluded). So one observes that different groups of objects exhibit the same quantity, as against other groups that exhibit a different quantity. One then assigns a name to the quantity, e.g., “two” for | |, or “three” for | | |. 

Recognizing the quantities presupposes access to numerical concepts. 

You can certainly call “God” a pure consciousness and “attribute all positive reality” to him, but that’s not an adequate grounding for your assertion. The point I am making is that the concept of a pure consciousness doesn’t make any sense, any more than the concept of pure two makes sense. Just as there is no such thing as pure two in reality (“two” is simply an abstraction from observed particulars), so there is no such thing as a pure consciousness in reality. Just as there must be two something (e.g., two pencils, two oranges, two lines on a piece of paper) -- so there must be something that is conscious (e.g., an insect, a bird, a dog, a human being). You cannot have a pure consciousness as an actual existent, any more than you can have pure two as an actual existent.

Immaterial things exist.  This is what you must accept.  The only thing preventing you from doing so is an unsupportable commitment to unflinching materialism. 

No, that’s not my position; the senses are not like “windows” to the external world; I am not a naïve realist. But the senses are required in order to observe reality. To be aware, one must be aware by some particular means and in some particular form. Since a pure consciousness has no particular means or form of awareness, it cannot exist; it cannot be conscious.


Please refer to the other thread, where I discuss how the Trinitarian conception of God solves this (perceived) difficulty. 

 

I wrote:  "Of course it presupposes the concept of reality. But the point is that reality may not be something to which we have direct access. It may be that our perceptions (which we believe to correspond with something 'out there' that is perceived) are in fact illusory, e.g. created through an artificial brain stimulation."

 

William wrote: 

How then did you get the concept of ‘reality’? And what does that concept in fact mean? Doesn’t it mean the object of your awareness.[sic] If the object of your awareness isn’t reality, then what is reality?



In order:  1) From that which we perceive  2)That which we perceive (and what we believe to be actual)  3) Yes.  4) Something other than that of which you are aware.

 

I wrote:  “This isn't about evidentialism, it's about knowledge. And, since you want to push out the notion of belief from your epistemology, you are committed to the idea that knowledge is infallible, which means that you can't settle for merely weighing the evidence, because then belief would have to step in to settle the choice.”

 

William responded: 

What do you mean, “belief would have to step in and settle the choice”? This isn’t about an arbitrary choice to believe; it’s about drawing the appropriate conclusion, one which is warranted by the evidence.

Belief doesn’t have to be arbitrary.  Belief is intellectual assent.  Thus, it can be justified, so long as it is “warranted by the evidence”.  Justified belief, however, according to your infallibilist theory of knowledge, does not equate with knowledge.

 

What do you consider proof? If all the evidence supports and none contradicts, that’s proof.

Your theory of knowledge (which claims that we can have certain knowledge about empirical facts) requires a stronger kind of proof, i.e. a mathematical kind, not just evidence, no matter how much evidence there is. 

If all the evidence supports the charge that Scott Peterson murdered his wife, Lacy, and none contradicts it, then Scott Peterson has been proved guilty of murder.

Legally we use the word ‘proof’ differently than we do in epistemology. 

 

You are missing the point of the analogy. If we can infer that we will die, because we are directly aware of others dying, then we can infer that other people are conscious, because we are directly aware of our own consciousness. Like causes beget like effects.

 

“Like causes beget like effects”—usually that is the case, but you need it to work the other way, i.e. “Like effects bespeak like causes”, and it doesn’t work this way.  In any case, since you see other bodies die, you can infer that yours will as well.  This does not, however, find similarity in the idea that we can infer other minds from ours.  Why?  Because, in the case of bodies, we perceive ours in the same sense that we perceive others, whereas, in the case of minds, we apperceive our own directly, but have no access to others’.

 

Similarly, you certainly don’t know that you will be alive tomorrow, but you can say that you believe that you will be alive tomorrow, meaning that, from your perspective, there is a very high probability that you will.

As I pointed out above, even though knowledge contains belief, belief and knowledge are, strictly speaking, very different concepts. 

 

I wrote:  “And to the question of whether, there are only three possible answers: 'yes', 'no', and 'undecided'. The 'undecided' option is really quite impractical, and could in fact endanger marriages and friendships. For instance, consider if my future wife (that is, if I don't become a priest) were to ask: "Do you love me?" [I think you meant for her to say, “Do you believe I love you?”, right?] And I responded, "Judging from your behavior, there is a high probability that you love me." And she pressed, "What if you had to choose whether or not I really do love you." And I responded, "I can't choose, because based on inconclusive evidence I must withhold judgment." I would be sleeping in the garage for a few weeks, I assure you, as punishment for pedantry. The point: Life presents us with situations in which we ought to form committed beliefs about objective uncertainties.”

 

William responded: 

Again, it’s not just an arbitrary belief. If all of the evidence supports and none contradicts, then you can conclude without a doubt that she loves you. If, however, you had evidence of lies and infidelity on her part, then you would have some basis for doubting that she loved you.

This isn’t strong enough.  A belief does not become a certainty merely through absence of evidence to the contrary, because perhaps evidence to the contrary is something of which we simply are not aware.  And I do not know why you continue to identify belief with arbitrariness.  Beliefs can be justified.  Thus, my point—that we ought to accept as true (i.e. believe) some things which are objectively uncertain—remains unchallenged.

 

I wrote:  So it's necessary that the universe exist, is what you're saying. And I'm asking, "Why?" It's certainly not demonstrably necessary, as mathematical truths are.

 

William responded: 

Yes, it is, because the concept of possible non-existence doesn’t apply to the universe. There is a sense in which it is possible for me not to have existed – e.g., if my parents choose not to conceive a child.

 

No, according to your view, it is necessary that you exist, and that everything exists, for that matter.  Because your metaphysics entails that the ‘nature’ of any entity fully determines what it will do. 

 

But what would it mean to say that it’s possible for the universe not to have existed. [sic]

It would mean to say that it’s possible that there be nothing at all. 

 

There is nothing on which the non-existence of the universe could depend, since the universe is all there is; existence is everything.

It wouldn’t have to depend on anything, because it wouldn’t exist.  Nothing would exist.  Or, to put it more aptly, there would be non-existence. 

 

I called William’s statement—“Possibility refers only to the actions of already existing entities”— an unsupportable assertion.  

 

William responded: 

How is it unsupportable?

Because it assumes that the universe is necessary, and you have not yet supported this assumption with any justification.

If P, then necessarily Q. But it’s also true that something is necessary if it could not have been otherwise. And I don’t see how the universe could have been otherwise – could not have existed. Again, it could not have existed only if some condition had not been fulfilled? What condition could that be? There isn’t any.

 

Why would a condition need to be fulfilled?  To ask for a condition is to presuppose existence, viz. the existing condition.  Forget the condition.  It is possible that the universe just straight up not exist.    

 

Well, as you know by now, it is my position that divine intervention is not logically possible, because a pure, omnipotent spirit is not logically possible.

What do you mean by ‘pure’?  God is not ‘pure’ in the sense that he lacks something which other things have.  As I’ve said time and time again, God possesses all positive properties, though without limitation and without those that imply limitation. 

 

With respect to Socrates, William wrote: 

Well, I think he made a big mistake; he should not have staked his life on the “if” of immortality.

From your perspective, why would it matter?  Also, per your necessitarianism, Socrates, because of his nature and antecedent states, had to stake his life on the ‘if’ of immortality.  He had no ability to choose otherwise.   And you have no room to criticize the unavoidable.

 

With respect to Socrates, I wrote:  “But what if he just decomposed? Well...what if he did? What if we all do? In that case, I don't think it really matters how we live, because all our lives, without exception, end in decomposition.”

 

William responded: 

This is a non-sequitur. It matters to us while we are still alive how we live our lives; if we live poorly, we suffer the consequences; if we live well, we reap the benefits.

On the contrary, many who live poorly reap benefits, and many who live well suffer hardships.  Once dead, there is no distinction between the good and evil man.  Their lives are rendered equally worthless.     

 

In fact, you just said as much, when you stated “the virtuous and faithful life is ultimately the most fulfilling, even if what incites it to action – a love of God – is shown to have no actual object.” Fulfilling in what respect? Evidently, with respect to the life that one experiences while one is still alive -- even though, of course, I don't agree that adhering to religious doctrine is as fulfilling as you claim it is.

Life would have been fulfilling in placing its sights on the Highest.  It would have been lived out of love and reverence for the Idea instead of out of desire for life-extension.  But I think you have a point, insofar as one could only argue that such a life (lived in service of the Idea) is at least as fulfilling (not necessarily more fulfilling) as the other kind (in service of survival).  For, in both cases, what one loves, i.e. God or self, is (or will be) non-existent. 

 

I wrote:  “Surely, it might be desirable to live, to move, to learn, to have children, etc., but in the end we must believe that everything we do here comes to naught.”

 

William responded:

But it comes to naught only if we get no enjoyment, no fulfillment, out of the lives we are actually living – only if we think that a fantasy life beyond the grave is the only thing worth striving for.

No, it comes to naught whether or not you get fulfillment out of it.  We will eventually cease to exist.  This happens whether or not one yearns for a ‘fantasy life’, as you put it.  Death destroys all 

 

I wrote:  “And I do not want to build my life around that belief. I'd rather not live thinking that behind every human face there is inevitably a skeleton buried in dirt, that every new insight into our universe is to be just another discovery that we'll inevitably have to surrender to nothingness, that every single action I do here is destined to be counted as nothing once humanity dies out, and our sun, and our universe.”

 

William responded: 

You are assuming that unless happiness and enjoyment are never ending, they have no value, which is a false assumption. As Rand would say, check your premises.

They have value in the same sense that Sisyphus’ life has value, if he goes up the mountain once and dies.  Similar to his case, the stone you roll up the mountain (representing what you've accomplished in life) will roll back down (to render it meaningless). 

 

Lives have no ultimate value (on your view).

 

William wrote: 

“And since there isn't any God or life after death, following Christian dogma and obeying God’s commandments is against your self-interest. And that, in the final analysis, IS suicidal.”

I responded:  On your view, it's all suicidal in the final analysis.

 

William replied: 

The fact that we will eventually die does not mean that our deaths are, therefore, suicidal! Suicide is the deliberate ending of one’s life.

I was using the word in the same broad sense you were using it in your first statement. 

 

I said, “If nothing we do ultimately matters…”

 

William wrote: 

Matters to whom and for what? What you do while you are alive certainly matters to you for the sake of your happiness and wellbeing.

I am too intelligent to be satisfied with living like a goldfish—smiling, being fed, reproducing, swimming around, and then dying. 

 

William wrote that we ought to live in order to...

“gain the values that life has to offer.” 

But everything life has to offer us is "on loan", as it were.  We have about 80 years before everything is taken away, and we are sent into nothingness (on your view, of course).

 

William wrote: 

You find the real world that offers actual values and achievements uninspiring, but a mystical fairy tale of disembodied spirits inspiring??

This is a loaded question, since you assume the truth of your own belief about the world, and the falsity of mine.  Anyway, I find the universe inspiring and wonderful, because I see God as its creator and Wisdom in his creation.  I believe that when we unite in friendship with people we touch immortal souls.  I believe that justice is ultimate, and that all evils will be rectified through the beneficence of God.  I have faith that Wisdom will overcome ignorance, that Love will overcome hate.  And I am impelled to seek out the good because I know that God wills that we embrace the Good in our freedom.  Indeed, the reason for the Saints' love and esteem for that which is good in the world, and the motivation behind their working for its good and salvation, was nothing less than an undying love for God.   

 

William wrote against the concept of heat-death, saying: 

[T]here is no reason to believe that the universe itself is subject to entropy, which pertains only to a closed system, one that does not permit the escape or transfer of energy. For such closed systems, the notion of a heat-death is applicable, but the same result cannot be predicted for the entire universe. According to L.D. Landau and E.M. Lifshitz, authors of Statistical Physics: “[I]n the general theory of relativity the universe as a whole must be regarded not as a closed system, but as one which is in a variable gravitational field. In this case the application of the law of increase of entropy does not imply the necessity of statistical equilibrium.” (p. 29) (Quoted in George H. Smith’s Atheism: The Case Against God, p. 256).

 

If we assume the second law of thermodynamics, it’s pretty much clear that the universe will ‘die out’ in a heat-death.  Now, there are some who deny the 2nd law, but they are still faced with the problem that all viable cosmological models of the universe assume either a spreading or leveling into homogeneous matter at large scales or a destruction via the Big Crunch.  (A fact which George H. Smith ignored very well.)  In other words, at least for humanity, that we are doomed is as good as certain.  Even so, some rather imaginative scientists, still clinging to hope, have tried to argue that we could build some sort of galactic supercomputer with stored human knowledge--one that could survive the future conditions of the universe owing to a photonic composition.  Most think this is a pipe dream.  Of course, if you wish to grant human lives some kind of ultimate meaning by citing the fact that they might construct such a hypothetical computer by using their (at that time) expanded knowledge, this is your prerogative.  In the final analysis, though, I find it is an insufficient foundation upon which to build a rational worldview, and that it does not do justice to human freedom and the beauty and goodness of the universe. 

 

To finish, then, I'd like to quote one of my favorite passages from Leibniz (Discourse on Metaphysics), since I believe it wonderfully expresses the beauty of the Christian worldview, and what excellent affect this worldview has on our attitude toward the universe and our place within it:

 

Jesus Christ has revealed to men the mystery and the admirable laws of the kingdom of heaven, and the greatness of the supreme happiness which God has prepared for those who love him.  The ancient philosophers knew very little of these important truths. Jesus Christ alone has expressed them divinely well, and in a way so clear and simple that the dullest minds have understood them. His gospel has entirely changed the face of human affairs. It has brought us to know the kingdom of heaven, or that perfect republic of spirits which deserves to be called the city of God. He it is who has discovered to us its wonderful laws. He alone has made us see how much God loves us and with what care everything that concerns us has been provided for; how God, inasmuch as he cares for the sparrows, will not neglect reasoning beings, who are infinitely more dear to him; how all the hairs of our heads are numbered; how heaven and earth may pass away but the word of God and that which belongs to the means of our salvation will not pass away; how God has more regard for the least one among intelligent souls than for the whole machinery of the world; how we ought not to fear those who are able to destroy the body but are unable to destroy the soul, since God alone can render the soul happy or unhappy; and how the souls of the righteous are protected by his hand against all the upheavals of the universe, since God alone is able to act upon them; how none of our acts are forgotten; how everything is to be accounted for; even careless words and even a spoonful of water which is well used; in fact how everything must result in the greatest welfare of the good, for then shall the righteous become like suns and neither our sense nor our minds have ever tasted of anything approaching the joys which God has laid up for those that love him.

(Edited by Gottfried Wilhelm Leibniz on 3/08, 8:43pm)


Post 64

Thursday, March 8, 2007 - 7:31pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
Brady, you say:

Once again, you missed the real problem.

... but earlier you had identified "the real problem" as:

Now you could use a disjunctive syllogism in the way you do above, if and only if all other possibilities are first shown false. For instance, the main question of our discussion is, do your perceptions tell you anything about the world around you?
And so then -- in post 61 -- I did what you had asked (I showed the other possibility false). The main question, as you have stated it, has 2 possible (and contradictory) answers: A) "yes"; and B) "no" ...

A) If yes, then that means that "[my] perceptions tell [me] [some]thing about the world around [me]"
B) If no, then that means that "[my] perceptions [don't] tell [me] anything about the world around [me]"

Now, as I said before (though I misused the word "opposites" where, as you have shown, I should have used: "contradictories"), you can discover the correct answer to this question in 2 possible ways (proving A or B true; or proving A or B false). However, in order for B to be true, then Realism couldn't be true, and Idealism would have to be true -- so I went on to disprove B indirectly, by disproving Idealism (arriving at the correct answer to the question).

So please inform me on how it is that I have missed the "real problem"?

Ed

p.s. It seems more like you've missed my real solution to it.

(Edited by Ed Thompson on 3/08, 7:36pm)

(Edited by Ed Thompson on 3/09, 8:14am)


Post 65

Friday, March 9, 2007 - 8:47amSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
Here's a neat excerpt from an essay to which I often hyper-link. It shows how the existence of the external world -- like the existence of the internal world of the mind -- is conclusively justified ...

The problem of “how do we know natural law” is no different from the other problems of perception. The arguments used by those that seek to prove that we cannot know natural law, therefore natural law does not exist, are precisely the same as the arguments that we cannot know anything, therefore nothing exists, and many notable philosophers, such as Berkeley and Bertrand Russell, who started out arguing that natural law does not exist ended up concluding exactly that - that nothing exists.

Philosophers usually try to reason from reason alone, as is done in mathematics, though it was long ago proven that this cannot be done, except in mathematics, and perhaps not even there.

To draw conclusions about the world one must look both without and within. Like the chicken and the egg, observation requires theory and observation leads to theory, theory requires observation and theory leads to observation. This is the core of the scientific method, in so far as the scientific method can be expressed in words.

Natural law derives from the nature of man and the world, just as physical law derives from the nature of space, time, and matter.

As a result most people who are not philosophers or lawyers accept natural law as the ultimate basis of all law and ethics, a view expressed most forcibly in recent times at the Nuremberg trials. Philosophers, because they often refuse to look at external facts, are unable to draw any conclusions, and therefore usually come to the false conclusion that one cannot reach objectively true conclusions about matters of morality and law, mistaking self imposed ignorance for knowledge.

Although many philosophers like to pretend that Newton created the law of gravity, that Einstein created general relativity, this is obviously foolish. Universal gravitation was discovered, not invented. It was discovered in the same way a deer might suddenly recognize a tiger partially concealed by bushes and the accidental play of sunlight. The deer would not be able to explain in a rigorous fashion, starting from the laws of optics and the probabilities of physical forms, how it rigorously deduced the existence of the tiger from the two dimensional projections on its retina, nonetheless the tiger was there, outside the deer, in the objective external world whether or not the deer correctly interpreted what it saw. The tiger was a discovery, not a creation, even though neither we nor the deer could prove its existence by formal logic. And proof of its concrete external existence is the fact that if the deer failed to recognize the tiger, it would soon be eaten.

A determined philosopher could obstinately argue that the perception of the tiger was merely an interpretation of light and shadow (which is true), that there is no unique three dimensional interpretation of a two dimensional image (which is also true), and that everyone is entitled to their own private and personal three dimensional interpretation (which is false), and would no doubt continue to argue this until also eaten. Something very similar to this happened to a number of philosophers in Cambodia a few years ago.

Ed


Post 66

Friday, March 9, 2007 - 10:38amSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
Hi Ed,

I will take your post in reverse order.

Ed wrote:


Here's a neat excerpt from an essay to which I often hyper-link. It shows how the existence of the external world -- like the existence of the internal world of the mind -- is conclusively justified ...


The problem of “how do we know natural law” is no different from the other problems of perception. The arguments used by those that seek to prove that we cannot know natural law, therefore natural law does not exist, are precisely the same as the arguments that we cannot know anything, therefore nothing exists, and many notable philosophers, such as Berkeley and Bertrand Russell, who started out arguing that natural law does not exist ended up concluding exactly that - that nothing exists.

Philosophers usually try to reason from reason alone, as is done in mathematics, though it was long ago proven that this cannot be done, except in mathematics, and perhaps not even there.

To draw conclusions about the world one must look both without and within. Like the chicken and the egg, observation requires theory and observation leads to theory, theory requires observation and theory leads to observation. This is the core of the scientific method, in so far as the scientific method can be expressed in words...


Ed, I read this twice, thinking that I missed something, but after the second reading I am sure that I did not. This piece begins with the premises that the external world exists and our sense perception corresponds to it, and it ends with the conclusions that the external world exists and our sense perception corresponds to it. There is no justification here at all! This is a great example of petitio principii. The whole thing just begs the question, it doesn't answer it.

G. Brady Lenardos



Post 67

Friday, March 9, 2007 - 11:06amSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
Ed wrote:

Brady, you say:


Once again, you missed the real problem.

... but earlier you had identified "the real problem" as:


Now you could use a disjunctive syllogism in the way you do above, if and only if all other possibilities are first shown false. For instance, the main question of our discussion is, do your perceptions tell you anything about the world around you?
And so then -- in post 61 -- I did what you had asked (I showed the other possibility false). The main question, as you have stated it, has 2 possible (and contradictory) answers: A) "yes"; and B) "no" ...

A) If yes, then that means that "[my] perceptions tell [me] [some]thing about the world around [me]"
B) If no, then that means that "[my] perceptions [don't] tell [me] anything about the world around [me]"

There is a third option: C) I don't know and can't know.

You may not like this third possibity, but given your basic propositions, it is the only one you can possibly hold to, without contradicting your basic propositions.

Accidentalism is inherent to your basic propositions. Accidentalism claims that there is no reason that anything (including accurate sense perception) is the way it is. So, every time you try to give a reason justifying your sense perceptions, you are actually trying to contradict your own basic propositions. And should you someday succeed in offering a reason, your basic propositions will be overturn completely.

2nd, you begin with taubula rasa, that means that everything you "know" has to come from your perceptions, including your "knowledge" of logic. As long as your perceptions are in question, so will be your use of logic.

In my next post, just for fun, I will show the errors in your three OI contradictions, but I need to take a break now, I will get to them a little later.

G. Brady Lenardos


Post 68

Friday, March 9, 2007 - 9:39pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
Hi Ed,

In this post I will address your three "contradictions" of OI.

Before I begin, Let me just point out to the reader, one more time, that I am not really defending Idealism. I reject Idealism. In my responses I am just pointing out that from your basic propositions you, Ed, can not justify your sense perceptions.

I think this is just a rabbit trail, my main argument has been stated clearly and has remained unassalted by you. But, for you, Ed, I am happy to go through these so-called contradictions.

So, let's get started. Ed wrote:

Ontological Idealism (OI!). The "conclusion" that all of our supposed perceptions are merely just a well-placed string of consistent hallucinations (i.e., that the concept of "perception" is, in actuality, meaningless). Okay. Let's see where we can go with this.

First (A) there's the problem of our already having some hallucinations -- you know, those things which we have learned to differentiate from our "real" perceptions. If we're really having hallucinations when we're having them, then it appears that OI! is false. This is so because, if OI! were true, then whenever we've experienced that which we have distinguished as a hallucination (i.e., a "false" perception), we were ACTUALLY experiencing a "false" hallucination (i.e., a "true" perception).
When doing an indirect derivation, you begin with a show line, which tells the audience what you are going to conclude:

1) show Realism is true.

Next, you assume the opposite. That would be: not Realism is true, or realism is not true. If Idealism is the antithesis of Realism, then you can insert this into your assumption:

2) Assume Idealism is true.

For the sake of argument, I will grant this.

From this point you must show from the propositions of Idealism that there is a contradiction. If you succeed, then you can add the line:

x) Idealism is not true

You can then box it, point out the contradiction with line numbers and declare that Realism is true.

You will not be able to do this with your argument above.

In Idealism, as described, all perceptions have the same value. There are none truer that any other; all are the same. You prescribe the value of "true" to some and "false" to others. So, you are not showing from the basic propositions of Idealism that Idealism is contradictory. All you are doing is saying given the basic propositions of Realism that Idealism is false. Duuuuuh!

You have not shown an internal contradiction.

Alright then, a second (B) way in which OI! is contradictory (as an epistemological theory), is to not even be a theory in the first place (but to merely be masquerading as a theory). So, what's a theory? Over at m-w.com, they say it's this ...


a plausible or scientifically acceptable general principle or body of principles offered to explain phenomena
Okay then, so there are 3 ingredients for every real theory in existence ...

1) it's either plausible (which means more than merely "non-impossible"), or scientifically acceptable
2) it's product is a principle, or body of them
3) it explains phenomena

And, if any of these 3 things are missing in some kind of given explanation for anything, then that kind of explanation is not a theory at all.


Now, let me ask you a quick question: How do you know what m-w.com said? Was it through your sense perceptions? Yes. Well, until you can justify your sense perceptions, you can't use the product of those perceptions as evidence against their antithesis. This would simply be arguing in a vicious circle.

Another way (C) in which OI! can be shown to involve undeniable contradiction was given by Rand (in Galt's Speech). Please forgive if Bill has already posted the quote earlier. In order to educationally understand the context of the quote, it's useful to remember that a crux of OI! is that a consciousness is the genesis of existence (what Rand called a Primacy of Consciousness) -- creating it ex nihilo -- rather than existence just simply existing, for us to then identify with our consciousness faculties ...


If nothing exists, there can be no consciousness: a consciousness with nothing to be conscious of is a contradiction in terms. A consciousness conscious of nothing but itself is a contradiction in terms: before it could identify itself as consciousness, it had to be conscious of something.

Its nice when you get to decide what "consciousness" means and does not mean. Surely, you know that George Berktley's understanding of consciousness is different than Rand's. Why did you choose Rand's meaning and not Berkeley's? Could it be that given Berkeley's understanding, you could not show a contradiction?

So, here we are again, the only way you can show a contradiction is to begin with the position that Idealism is false. It doesn't take much of an argument to show Idealism is false, when you begin with the premise that Idealism is false.

Regards,

Brady


Post 69

Friday, March 9, 2007 - 10:42pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
Brady,

This piece begins with the premises that the external world exists and our sense perception corresponds to it, and it ends with the conclusions that the external world exists and our sense perception corresponds to it.
No. The piece actually began with a statement of the philosophical "problem" of perception ("... no different from the other problems of perception.") -- rather than the perception-correspondence premise which you hastily mention. And, by the way, could you be any less generous (i.e., to deliberately misconstrue another's philosophical starting point) than THAT in a debate???

And another thing, what is it in the excerpt that you have ignored? ...

The arguments used by those that seek to prove that we cannot know natural law, therefore natural law does not exist, are precisely the same as the arguments that we cannot know anything, therefore nothing exists, and many notable philosophers, such as Berkeley and Bertrand Russell, who started out arguing that natural law does not exist ended up concluding exactly that - that nothing exists.
So, the arguments by Berkeley and Russell which argue against knowable natural law, themselves lead to arguments that nothing exists -- which clearly isn't true -- yet you still say that nothing has been proved? It's called Reductio ad Absurdum. It is a valid way to prove the existence of something by disproving -- through palpable absurdity -- the possibility of its nonexistence (or vice versa). Why did you overlook that?

Another thing missed ...

Philosophers usually try to reason from reason alone, as is done in mathematics, though it was long ago proven that this cannot be done, except in mathematics, and perhaps not even there.

To draw conclusions about the world one must look both without and within. Like the chicken and the egg, observation requires theory and observation leads to theory, theory requires observation and theory leads to observation.
So, the idea of reasoning without any worldly experience is absurd (it would be a "reasoning" without any entities), yet you missed this. Reasoning is our proper way to analyze and respond to our experiences. Without any experiences, reasoning would be useless. Don't you see how this basic fact of reality is true (that "Reasoning"s proper place is to properly sort out experiences)?

Ed


Post 70

Saturday, March 10, 2007 - 7:51amSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
Ed concerning the quote from James Donald, perhaps I did miss something. Why don't you outline his argument for everyone, so we can easily see what I missed?

I would also be interested in seeing any quotes from Berkeley and Russell stating "nothing exists (i.e. there is no existence)." I can't recall any and in my quick search I couldn't find any. I think you will find that both take a different position, the position that something does exist.

Another thing missed ...


Philosophers usually try to reason from reason alone, as is done in mathematics, though it was long ago proven that this cannot be done, except in mathematics, and perhaps not even there.

To draw conclusions about the world one must look both without and within. Like the chicken and the egg, observation requires theory and observation leads to theory, theory requires observation and theory leads to observation.
So, the idea of reasoning without any worldly experience is absurd (it would be a "reasoning" without any entities), yet you missed this. Reasoning is our proper way to analyze and respond to our experiences. Without any experiences, reasoning would be useless. Don't you see how this basic fact of reality is true (that "Reasoning"s proper place is to properly sort out experiences)?


I am sorry, I don't see that Donald is preseting an actual argument here, but it seems that he is merely making an unfounded assertion. It will be interesting to see how you handle this when you outline his argument. I think you will find that unless you insert the hidden premise, "the external world exists and our sense perception corresponds to it," you will not have much of an argument at all.

G. Brady Lenardos

(Edited by G. Brady Lenardos on 3/10, 7:58am)


Post 71

Saturday, March 10, 2007 - 11:30amSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
Brady,

Ed concerning the quote from James Donald, perhaps I did miss something. Why don't you outline his argument for everyone, so we can easily see what I missed?
Okay, I'll break it down for you (and everyone) ...

The problem of “how do we know natural law” is no different from the other problems of perception.
 Premise 1:
If you doubt natural law (or some kind of orderly existence), you are doubting perception itself.

The arguments used by those that seek to prove that we cannot know natural law, therefore natural law does not exist, are precisely the same as the arguments that we cannot know anything, therefore nothing exists, and many notable philosophers, such as Berkeley and Bertrand Russell, who started out arguing that natural law does not exist ended up concluding exactly that - that nothing exists.

 Premise 2:
If you say natural law (or existence) doesn't exist, you are making statements that lead to the notion that nothing exists.


 
Philosophers usually try to reason from reason alone, as is done in mathematics, though it was long ago proven that this cannot be done, except in mathematics, and perhaps not even there.
Premise 3a:
In order to use logic, you first need some experience. There is no such thing as reasoning without any experience ("pure" analysis cannot exist). Reasoning is that faculty that allows you to sort out and order your experiences -- and it is nothing other than that.

 
To draw conclusions about the world one must look both without and within. Like the chicken and the egg, observation requires theory and observation leads to theory, theory requires observation and theory leads to observation.
 Premise 3b:
[expounded upon]

Natural law derives from the nature of man and the world, just as physical law derives from the nature of space, time, and matter.

Premise 4:
The kinds of things (i.e., productive principles) that allow us to understand how we can utilize space, time, and matter for our benefit -- are the same kinds of things that allow us to know how best to live on earth.


Philosophers, because they often refuse to look at external facts, are unable to draw any conclusions, and therefore usually come to the false conclusion that one cannot reach objectively true conclusions about matters of morality and law, mistaking self imposed ignorance for knowledge.
Premise 5:
Purely analytic, or purely empirical, philosophers -- because of their self-imposed ignorances -- won't ever understand the truth that is represented in Premises 1-4. This is because they don't understand how perceptual and conceptual powers of awareness have got to relate to one another -- if they are to co-exist).


Although many philosophers like to pretend that Newton created the law of gravity, that Einstein created general relativity, this is obviously foolish. Universal gravitation was discovered, not invented.
Premise 6:
Truths about the world aren't invented, they're discovered -- through a logical reflection on perceptions (and by no other means than that). Nothing that anyone says that he knows -- if he claims to know it from a process other than this particular way of knowing -- is ever acceptible.

It was discovered in the same way a deer might suddenly recognize a tiger partially concealed by bushes and the accidental play of sunlight. The deer would not be able to explain in a rigorous fashion, starting from the laws of optics and the probabilities of physical forms, how it rigorously deduced the existence of the tiger from the two dimensional projections on its retina, nonetheless the tiger was there, outside the deer, in the objective external world whether or not the deer correctly interpreted what it saw. The tiger was a discovery, not a creation, even though neither we nor the deer could prove its existence by formal logic.

Premise 7a:
You don't have to have a complete, scientific (or philosophic) understanding of the mechanisms by which perception "works" -- in order to attain real knowledge about the world around you -- because if you DID have to have such an understanding about these things first, then life wouldn't be possible (because lower animals, forms of life that have managed to continually exist, don't even engage in science (or philosophy) proper, in order to arrive at such an understanding.

The mere fact of continued survival, proves this point true.


 
A determined philosopher could obstinately argue that the perception of the tiger was merely an interpretation of light and shadow (which is true), that there is no unique three dimensional interpretation of a two dimensional image (which is also true), and that everyone is entitled to their own private and personal three dimensional interpretation (which is false), and would no doubt continue to argue this until also eaten.
 Premise 7b:
[expounded upon]

Ed


Post 72

Saturday, March 10, 2007 - 3:18pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
Ed wrote:

Brady,


Ed concerning the quote from James Donald, perhaps I did miss something. Why don't you outline his argument for everyone, so we can easily see what I missed?
Okay, I'll break it down for you (and everyone) ...
Well, this is an interesting argument. It seems to be made up of all premises, no syllogisms and no conclusions. At least none that are noted. Of course, there are conclusions, just none noted, but I don't see any valid syllogisms. Perhaps more on that later.

Let me ask a simple question that may help me to understand. I will keep this short.


Premise 1:
If you doubt natural law (or some kind of orderly existence), you are doubting perception itself.


Before I ask my question, I think we need to inform our readers that by the use of the term "natural law" we are not referring to moral or legal law, but, to use the more appropriate term, the "laws of nature" (i.e. physics).

Ed, it seems that Donald has this a little backwards, and I want to see if you will agree with me here. It seems to me that one could doubt one or more of the laws of nature without doubting perception itself. The laws of nature, from your view, are judgements (i.e. conclusions) based on perceptions. These judgements are induced and not deduced. Since no inductive argument can present a conclusion that is 100% certain, there is some room for doubt. Even though our perception are accurate it is possible that our judgements may be mistaken.

On the other hand, if your perceptions are brought into doubt, then everything based on those perceptions, including the laws of nature, are also in doubt.

Would you agree with this?

G. Brady Lenardos



Post 73

Sunday, March 11, 2007 - 7:22pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
Brady,

The laws of nature, from your view, are judgements (i.e. conclusions) based on perceptions. These judgements are induced and not deduced. Since no inductive argument can present a conclusion that is 100% certain, there is some room for doubt.
But that's not true. For your amusement, here are some inductive (proceeding from "particulars") arguments that each present a conclusion (to intellectually honesty thinkers) that is 100% certain ...

1) The perceived entity known as the Morning Star, and the perceived entity known as the Evening Star, as a "group of 2" -- can be collapsed and taken as being separate instantiations of the self-same thing: the planet Venus (something known after looking at these "2" particular stars and keeping in mind how it is that stars can have any apparent trajectories).

2) Because of how chemical bonds work, the chemical product, helium-sulfide, is not possible -- and, therefore, doesn't exist(something known only after looking at how it is that chemical bonds are formed on earth).

3) All of the odd numbers between 1 and 8 are prime numbers (which is known after, inductively, examining each these particulars separately, in isolation from the other members of the group).

4) Canada is something that is north of Mexico (which is also known after "looking" out at existence, at these particular countries and at their latitudinal relationship to one another).

Ed


Post 74

Sunday, March 11, 2007 - 10:14pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
This is a (relatively) brief reply to GWL's Post #63:

He wrote:
I'll ask the same question I asked before: How do we abstract without concepts?
An abstraction is the process by which one forms a concept. It is "a selective mental focus that takes out or separates a certain aspect of reality from all others (e.g., isolates a certain attribute from the entities possessing it, or a certain action from the entities performing it, etc.)" (AR, ITOE, p. 10) For instance, one forms the concept of "four" by isolating or abstracting a certain attribute from two (or more) sets of objects, e.g., by perceiving a respect in which | | | |, O O O O and/or $ $ $ $ bear a greater similarity to each other than either does to | | | , O O O or $ $ $ and then designating the similarity with a word or symbol, viz., “four” or “4”.

I wrote, “What you want to say is that the being of things conforms itself to a necessity of thought. But once you put it that way, the fallacy becomes obvious. Reality doesn’t conform itself to our thoughts; our thoughts, if they are to be accurate and true, must conform to the being of things.”
This isn't how I see it. If God exists, his thoughts are that to which the created order conforms. And His being, n.b., is coeternal with his thought, which means that the being and the thought are given equal status as determining what is true.
“If God exists . . .” But he doesn’t, for as I’ve pointed out, in order for consciousness to exist, there has to be something that is conscious (e.g., a person, a cat, a bird, an insect -- some organism with a body, a brain and physical senses) and there has to be something (some aspect of an already existing world) that the organism is conscious of. Consciousness depends on the existence of an external world; the existence of an external world does not depend on consciousness.

Also, how could an immortal, indestructible god, who has nothing to gain or lose by its actions, have any values or desires that need to be fulfilled and for the sake of which it is motivated to choose between alternative courses of action? How could it have any goals that it recognized as worth pursuing? How could it regard anything as for it or against it, as serving or threatening its welfare, as fulfilling or frustrating its interests? It could have no interests and no goals. The very idea of a god making choices and of orchestrating the kind of morality play that is the stuff of religious myth and superstition is preposterous. Values, interests, ends and goals are biological phenomena that apply only to living organisms, which have something to gain or lose by their actions. Teleological action is entirely inapplicable to an indestructible, invulnerable, non-biological entity such as a god.

I wrote, “One can also prove one’s own existence extrospectively, by observing one’s physical body.”
That doesn't prove it's there. Remember the brain-in-a-vat scenario.
And remember my refutation of it? The recognition of an illusion depends on the recognition of reality. You have to know what reality is before you can know what an illusion is. If you can’t in principle distinguish one from the other, then you will have no meaningful concept of either, and will not be able to formulate an argument using these concepts.

I wrote, “Mental contents refer ultimately to information obtained extrospectively. Hume’s example of a golden mountain is relevant here. Even though there is no such thing as a golden mountain, one acquires the ideas of ‘golden’ and ‘mountain’ from observing reality."
”Golden" and "mountain" possess properties which go beyond the mathematical, logical, and geometrical. Hence, I do not propose they are innate. Therefore, you strike at a straw man.
Well, if these ideas are not innate, then how (according to your epistemology) do we acquire them? By observing reality and perceiving similarities and differences? If so, then why couldn’t we acquire all of our concepts this way, including the mathematical, logical and geometrical ones?

I wrote, “Well, you may not be able to experience what another conscious organism experiences, but you can observe that the organism is conscious. GWL replied, “How?” I replied, “You’re not denying that other people and other animals are conscious, are you?”
No, I don't deny it. But I do doubt that it can be "known" per your theory of knowledge.
What’s my theory of knowledge?

I continued, “And even if you had not observed other people or animals, you are certainly aware of the fact that your own consciousness is a faculty of a living organism and is dependent on a brain and physical senses.”
True, which is why I can be sure that I am conscious.
But if, as you say, you are aware that your consciousness is a faculty of a living organism and is dependent on a brain and physical senses, then what grounds do you have for thinking that a consciousness can exist independently of a physical body – independently of a brain and sense organs?

I wrote, “First of all, you're not suggesting, are you, that I could have pure two in my pocket, or pure two on the dining room table!”
Of course not, because that would imply that numbers have spatio-temporal characteristics, which they obviously do not.
Right, a pure abstraction is strictly mental; it does not exist in the external world. But then why would you think that a pure consciousness could exist in the external world?

I wrote, “You don’t have to have the concept ‘two’ in order to perceive a group of two entities, any more than you have to have the concept ‘chair’ in order to perceive a chair.”
A 'chair' is a name given to what appears to us to have the qualities of a chair. The concept two is not derived from perception in this way-- for the simple reason that there is no tenable account of how it could be.
Not true. The concept ‘two’ is derived from perception in the same way that the concept ‘chair’ is. Just as one observes that certain objects (viz., chairs) bear a greater similarity to each other than any of them does to certain other objects, such as tables, sofas, etc., so one observes that certain sets of objects (e.g., sets of two) bear a greater similarity to each other than any of them does to certain others, such as sets of three or four. One acquires the concept of ‘two’, in the same way that one acquires the concept of a chair -- by observing concrete instances of it in reality.

Now, obviously, one doesn't have to observe large numerical quantities directly, like 100 or 1000 in order to form the concept of '100' or a '1000', because one can abstract from earlier formed quantitative abstractions. But one still needs to perceive smaller quantities directly in order to form the concept of number and of numerical extension. Indeed such large quantities are impossible to grasp by direct perception. Only the ability to abstract from abstractions permits the formation of mathematical principles and of an expanded number system.

I wrote, “You can certainly call 'God' a pure consciousness and 'attribute all positive reality' to him, but that’s not an adequate grounding for your assertion. The point I am making is that the concept of a pure consciousness doesn’t make any sense, any more than the concept of pure two makes sense. Just as there is no such thing as pure two in reality (“two” is simply an abstraction from observed particulars), so there is no such thing as a pure consciousness in reality. Just as there must be two something (e.g., two pencils, two oranges, two lines on a piece of paper) -- so there must be something that is conscious (e.g., an insect, a bird, a dog, a human being). You cannot have a pure consciousness as an actual existent, any more than you can have pure two as an actual existent.”
Immaterial things exist. This is what you must accept. The only thing preventing you from doing so is an unsupportable commitment to unflinching materialism.
Well, you’ve already acknowledged that such a thing as pure ‘two’ cannot exist in the external world. So on what grounds do you claim that any other concept, such as ‘mind’ or ‘consciousness’ can exist in the external world. If you grant that in order for two to exist in the external world, it must be two something, such as two pencils or two oranges, then why don’t you grant that in order for consciousness to exist in the external world, there must be something that is conscious, such as a dog or a human being?

I wrote, “No, that’s not my position; the senses are not like ‘windows’ to the external world; I am not a naïve realist. But the senses are required in order to observe reality. To be aware, one must be aware by some particular means and in some particular form. Since a pure consciousness has no particular means or form of awareness, it cannot exist; it cannot be conscious.”
Please refer to the other thread, where I discuss how the Trinitarian conception of God solves this (perceived) difficulty.
But you didn’t discuss how the Trinitarian conception of God solves this difficulty. You argued that it solves the problem of how a consciousness could be conscious in the absence of an external world, which is a different issue. In any case, I explained why I thought your rebuttal was unsuccessful. The argument I am making here is a different one. Here I am arguing that a consciousness requires a particular means and form of awareness – that it requires a sensory apparatus and a sensory modality.

GWL wrote,
Of course it presupposes the concept of reality. But the point is that reality may not be something to which we have direct access. It may be that our perceptions (which we believe to correspond with something 'out there' that is perceived) are in fact illusory, e.g. created through an artificial brain stimulation.
But if reality is not something to which you have direct access, how did you form the concept, what does it mean and what is an example of something that’s real? If you can’t understand the concept by reference to something that you can grasp by direct awareness, then it’s a meaningless concept.

In my previous post, I asked a similar question: “How then did you get the concept of ‘reality’? You replied, “From that which we perceive.”

I then asked, “And what does that concept in fact mean?” You replied, “That which we perceive (and what we believe to be actual).”

The first part of your reply – “that which we perceive” is correct. However, the second part, “(and what we believe to be actual)” is circular. “Actual” simply means real, so what you are saying is that reality is what we believe to be real. Your reply is inadequate in another respect. Reality is not simply what we believe to be real; it’s what is in fact real.

I then asked, “Doesn’t [reality] mean the object of your awareness? If the object of your awareness isn’t reality, then what is reality?” To which you replied: “Something other than that of which you are aware.” But then how did you get the concept of reality, if it is something other than that of which you are aware? If the concept refers to “that which we perceive,” then it can’t be something other than that of which we are aware. This is why Objectivists call the argument from illusion a “stolen concept.” The argument relies on a concept to which, if the argument is valid, it has no epistemological right or entitlement.

GWL wrote: “This isn't about evidentialism, it's about knowledge. And, since you want to push out the notion of belief from your epistemology, you are committed to the idea that knowledge is infallible, which means that you can't settle for merely weighing the evidence, because then belief would have to step in to settle the choice.”

I replied “What do you mean, ‘belief would have to step in and settle the choice’? This isn’t about an arbitrary choice to believe; it’s about drawing the appropriate conclusion, one which is warranted by the evidence.”
Belief doesn’t have to be arbitrary. Belief is intellectual assent. Thus, it can be justified, so long as it is “warranted by the evidence”. Justified belief, however, according to your infallibilist theory of knowledge, does not equate with knowledge.
Well, I wouldn’t define “knowledge” as “justified (true) belief,” because the object of knowledge is a fact. Knowledge is not a belief, because you don’t "believe" a fact; you know a fact; you believe a proposition. Is knowledge infallible? Well, if one truly does know something, then one cannot be mistaken about it. If one thought it was knowledge, but happened to be mistaken, then it was not knowledge to begin with. If an idea is false, then it cannot possibly constitute knowledge. So, in that sense, knowledge is infallible. In other words, knowledge is certainty. There are, of course, many conclusions that, while not absolutely certain, are highly probable, because they are supported by all the evidence. The conclusion that Scott Peterson is guilty is of this sort.

I wrote, “What do you consider proof? If all the evidence supports and none contradicts, that’s proof. If all the evidence supports the charge that Scott Peterson murdered his wife, Lacy, and none contradicts it, then Scott Peterson has been proved guilty of murder.”
Legally we use the word ‘proof’ differently than we do in epistemology.
I think you are correct here, at least with respect to certain aspects of epistemology. There’s still an outside chance that Scott Peterson is innocent. But no such chance exists with respect to your possessing a consciousness. The idea that, from my perspective, you might be a sophisticated robot could be a reasonable possibility only if such robots did in fact exist. But since they don’t, there are no grounds for assuming such a possibility.

I wrote, “You are missing the point of the analogy. If we can infer that we will die, because we are directly aware of others dying, then we can infer that other people are conscious, because we are directly aware of our own consciousness. Like causes beget like effects.?
“Like causes beget like effects”—usually that is the case, but you need it to work the other way, i.e. “Like effects bespeak like causes”, and it doesn’t work this way. In any case, since you see other bodies die, you can infer that yours will as well. This does not, however, find similarity in the idea that we can infer other minds from ours. Why? Because, in the case of bodies, we perceive ours in the same sense that we perceive others, whereas, in the case of minds, we apperceive our own directly, but have no access to others’.
Okay, I can see that that wasn’t a good example. What I had in mind is something like the following: If you come upon the charred remains of a building, it’s rational to infer that there was a fire, because only a fire could have produced that condition. Similarly, if I see a human being at close proximity – that is, a physical body with certain characteristics and appearance – it’s rational for me to infer that it is a person with a mind, because only a person with a mind could exhibit those characteristics. Again, we haven’t advanced to the stage of being able to produce a robot that perfectly mimics a human being. So, at present, there would be no basis for doubting that what I see is a real person.

- Bill

(Edited by William Dwyer
on 3/11, 10:27pm)


Sanction: 4, No Sanction: 0
Sanction: 4, No Sanction: 0
Post 75

Wednesday, March 14, 2007 - 8:12pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
Ed wrote:

Brady,


The laws of nature, from your view, are judgements (i.e. conclusions) based on perceptions. These judgements are induced and not deduced. Since no inductive argument can present a conclusion that is 100% certain, there is some room for doubt.
But that's not true. For your amusement, here are some inductive (proceeding from "particulars") arguments that each present a conclusion (to intellectually honesty thinkers) that is 100% certain ...

Ed, I am not amused, I am very disappointed that you would even try to make such a case. Intellectually honest thinkers along with those who have studied philosophy and/or logic will readily understand the errors in your examples.

Do you understand the difference between an analytic statement and a synthetic statement?

Analytic statements are true by definition, they usually fall into tautologies, mathematics and formal logic.

Synthetic statements require evidence is gathered both for and against. Since it is always possible the there was an error in  the gathering of the evidence or that enough evidence was not gathered (no matter how much was gathered) to come to a strong conclusion, these statements can only be said to be probable and not certain. Some of them are very, very, very probable, but they are still probable and not certain.

Your problem goes even further, since you have NO WAY TO JUSTIFY ANY OF YOUR PERCEPTIONS (as has been thoroughly shown and beaten to death over the last several dozen posts), all of your conclusions based on sense perception are unjustified. You have put forth only one argument so far and it has been repeated by you and defeated by me over and over and over again and it is not a very good argument.

Let's examine it in detail:

GBL: Ed, how do you justify your perceptions?

Ed: Ayn Rand said so. The Cambridge dictionary of philosophy said so. The ITOE said so. James Donald said so.

GBL: Since none of the sources you quoted actually offed an any sort of valid or cogent argument that addressed the issue, how do you justify your perceptions?

Ed: Let's talk about idealism!

GBL: Ed, how do you justify your perceptions?

Ed: Let's talk about inductive arguments that yield certain conclusions!

GBL: Ed, how do you justify your perceptions?

GBL: Ed, how do you justify your perceptions?

GBL: Ed, how do you justify your perceptions?

GBL: Ed, how do you justify your perceptions?

GBL: Ed, how do you justify your perceptions?

So, Ed, please, simply and directly answer the question. Enumerate the points of your argument, and give an actual argument with premises, syllogisms and conclusions (unlike your last so-called argument that only had premises. An argument that has only premises is no argument at all). Show us all how given your basic propositions you are able to offer any argument or justification for your sense  perceptions.

And if you cannot do it, have the guts to admit it, and we can all move on to other issues.

G. Brady Lenardos


Sanction: 10, No Sanction: 0
Sanction: 10, No Sanction: 0
Sanction: 10, No Sanction: 0
Post 76

Wednesday, March 14, 2007 - 11:25pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
GBL wrote (to Ed):
Do you understand the difference between an analytic statement and a synthetic statement?

Analytic statements are true by definition, they usually fall into tautologies, mathematics and formal logic.

Synthetic statements require evidence is gathered both for and against. Since it is always possible the there was an error in the gathering of the evidence or that enough evidence was not gathered (no matter how much was gathered) to come to a strong conclusion, these statements can only be said to be probable and not certain. Some of them are very, very, very probable, but they are still probable and not certain. Your problem goes even further, since you have NO WAY TO JUSTIFY ANY OF YOUR PERCEPTIONS (as has been thoroughly shown and beaten to death over the last several dozen posts), all of your conclusions based on sense perception are unjustified. You have put forth only one argument so far and it has been repeated by you and defeated by me over and over and over again and it is not a very good argument.
Question: Is the proposition, "THERE IS NO WAY TO JUSTIFY ANY OF YOUR PERCEPTIONS" analytic or synthetic? How about the proposition that "It's always possible there was an error in the gathering of evidence." Is that proposition analytic or synthetic? Or the proposition, "Synthetic statements are probable but not certain." Is that proposition analytic or synthetic? Inquiring minds want to know. ;-)

- Bill

Sanction: 4, No Sanction: 0
Sanction: 4, No Sanction: 0
Post 77

Thursday, March 15, 2007 - 9:45pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
Hehe, good stuff, Bill (you're too cool).

;-)

Brady,

Do you understand the difference between an analytic statement and a synthetic statement?
analytic = when the predicate is "contained" in the subject (e.g., all red roses are red)
synthetic = when the predicate isn't "contained" in the subject (e.g., all roses are red)

Does that answer your question, Brady?

Synthetic statements require evidence is gathered both for and against. Since it is always possible the there was an error in  the gathering of the evidence or that enough evidence was not gathered (no matter how much was gathered) to come to a strong conclusion, these statements can only be said to be probable and not certain.
Well, what about the 100% certain knowledge that 7 + 5 = 12 (Kant's example of a synthetic a priori proposition), huh?

Chew on that.

You keep saying that perception is unjustifiable. In keeping with Bill's keen philosophical insight on how you are contradicting yourself when you speak, is that statement about how the world is, analytic or synthetic? Hmm?

I'll wait in cautiously-optimistic anticipation, Brady, to see if you can find a way to expunge yourself from your own contradictory statements. I see no need to further engage you, if you are self-contradictory.

Ed


Post 78

Friday, March 16, 2007 - 11:49pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
Bill wrote:

Question: Is the proposition, "THERE IS NO WAY TO JUSTIFY ANY OF YOUR PERCEPTIONS" analytic or synthetic?  
Why analytic, of course. It is simple to show, as I have in past posts, that your basic propositions do not have the elements that allow you to get to knowledge of any kind, including the justification of our perceptions. In fact, given those basic propositions and their implications, knowledge is impossible. If I am wrong, please show all of us inquiring minds where and how? I have only been asking this question since Post 22 on Feb. 23rd. Until you justify your perceptions any attempt at induction is futile.

How about the proposition that "It's always possible there was an error in the gathering of evidence." Is that proposition analytic or synthetic? Or the proposition, "Synthetic statements are probable but not certain." Is that proposition analytic or synthetic? Inquiring minds want to know. ;-)
I think we are in complete agreement that there is a huge problem here. But that problem stems from your (and Ed's) inability to answer the above question. It makes no sense to talk about synthetic statements at all, when the only means of testing synthetic statements is itself left unresolved. This is why I wrote :
Your problem goes even further, since you have NO WAY TO JUSTIFY ANY OF YOUR PERCEPTIONS (as has been thoroughly shown and beaten to death over the last several dozen posts), all of your conclusions based on sense perception are unjustified.
The phrase "Your problem goes even further," identifies two levels of problems. The more basic and greater problem being, "you have NO WAY TO JUSTIFY ANY OF YOUR PERCEPTIONS."
 
Perhaps you would like to answer this basic problem: Show how, given your basic propositions your perceptions are justified?"

G. Brady Lenardos


Post 79

Saturday, March 17, 2007 - 12:52amSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
Ed wrote:


Synthetic statements require evidence is gathered both for and against. Since it is always possible the there was an error in  the gathering of the evidence or that enough evidence was not gathered (no matter how much was gathered) to come to a strong conclusion, these statements can only be said to be probable and not certain.
Well, what about the 100% certain knowledge that 7 + 5 = 12 (Kant's example of a synthetic a priori proposition), huh?

Chew on that.


The transcendental idealism that Kant embedded the synthetic a priori into encompasses only the phenomenal world, the world of appearances that our minds have constructed (that is why they are a priori), and not the real world. In fact, Kant would say that there is no way to justify a synthetic a priori when referring to the real world. So, remembering your direct realism, I don't see how Kant is of any help to you at all. Remember, Kant denies that you can ever know the thing in itself. Which is going to make it really, really hard for you to justify your sense perceptions as having any real correspondence to the thing in itself.

Don't you Objectivists hate Kant or something like that? I seem to recall something about that.

Ed wrote:
I'll wait in cautiously-optimistic anticipation, Brady, to see if you can find a way to expunge yourself from your own contradictory statements. I see no need to further engage you, if you are self-contradictory.
Gee, you been self-stultifying all the way thru this thread and it hasn't bothered you. You still can't justify your perceptions and that hasn't bother you either.

And here again you offer another rabbit trail (a Kantian one) in order to avoid answering the question. Let's add this to our list:

GBL: Ed, how do you justify your perceptions?

Ed: Ayn Rand said so. The Cambridge dictionary of philosophy said so. The ITOE said so. James Donald said so.

GBL: Since none of the sources you quoted actually offered an any sort of valid or cogent argument that addressed the issue, how do you justify your perceptions?

Ed: Let's talk about idealism!

GBL: Ed, how do you justify your perceptions?

Ed: Let's talk about inductive arguments that yield certain conclusions!

GBL: Ed, how do you justify your perceptions?

Ed: Let's talk about the synthetic a priori!

GBL: Hey Ed, here's an idea, let's talk about how you justify your sense perceptions? You are the one who has been insisting that you can.

But, if you would rather disengage at this point without answering the above question, that is fine with me. It has been my position from the beginning that you would not be able to answer it, because it is impossible to answer that question given your basic propositions.


G. Brady Lenardos




Post to this threadBack one pagePage 0Page 1Page 2Page 3Page 4Forward one pageLast Page


User ID Password or create a free account.