| | Jordan wrote:
Brady:
To date it has been shown that, if any atheistic cosmology is true, then there is no knowledge. But if knowledge exists, then all atheistic cosmologies are false.
Huh? Says you! Where do you think you demonstrated these miraculous arguments? And at least give a synopsis of them.
See the originating post is the Objectivism -> atheism thread.
And you totally ignored my post 7 in the other thread in the "Objectivism -> atheism...." thread." Given the newbie-turned-zealot style your threads having taken, you're coming off as rather dishonest to me. The problem is that there are no real arguments in that post, just opinion.
So let me address them now:
A. While it might not be Objectivist, see compatibilism. Since you admit that Objectivists reject this, why are we even discussing it? But....
Invoking compatibilism does not get you off the hook when it comes to “knowledge.” Our thoughts either have an element of independence to them or they don’t. This is an excluded middle, when it comes to logic. If all our thoughts are necessarily determined, we can’t “know” anything. We simply react as antecedent causes force us to; just as the rock is forced to roll down the hill in a specific path, caused by antecedent causes. Other terms are also destroyed; terms like “belief,” “opinion,” and “assent.” All of these terms have an element of independence built into them and when this element is removed, they all lose their meaning. Under compatibilism, all of our “opinions,” like all of our thoughts are determined. All of our beliefs are determined. Everything we assent to, we assent to because it is necessarily determined by the antecedent causes of our mechanistic universe. You see, in normal thinking “opinion” necessarily contains an element of subjectivism, but under naturalistic atheism every thought is necessarily determined, and there really is no such thing as the subjective. “Subjective” then also becomes a meaningless term.
What of terms like, “ignorance” and “error?” If we are determined in what we think, then the ignorant man is necessarily determined to be ignorant and the scientist who makes the grave error must think that way and can do no other. These terms also become meaningless.
Does “compatibilism,” mean that Jordan freely and independently concluded that on some level free will and determinism are compatible, or does he mean that he was determined by antecedent causes to say they are compatible? The former demands independence, the latter rejects it. Which is it? If Jordan asserts that he freely concluded that on some level free will and determinism are compatible, his argument fails, because he admits independence. If his assertion means that he was determined by antecedent causes to say they are compatible, he admits it is merely a forced assertion, and my argument is successful.
B. Order in the universe (e.g., predictability of planets' locations), as well as moving matter, does not necessitate determinism As I pointed out before there is no argument here. And please remember that your cosmology denies order in the universe. In naturalistic atheism, everything is what it is by accident.
C. Determined events don't necessitate the universality of determinism. Once again, no argument, just assumption.
If you would like to present an actual argument using these last two assumptions, I will be happy to address them.
G. Brady Lenardos
|
|