| | John Dailey wrote, "Trying to 'stay-on-track' here, like Bill, well...OF COURSE doing such is an 'initiation of force.' Just as much as moving the infant from the hospital to home, or dragging a 5-yr old to the dentist a 4th time."
Force in the Objectivist or libertarian sense of the term involves compelling someone to act against his will. Could it ever make sense to say that a newborn baby is willing or unwilling to be circumcised? I don't think so, because he or she cannot grasp its significance--cannot understand the procedure well enough to grant or withhold consent. As for dragging a 5-yr old to the dentist for the 4th time, that is a different story, because the child does understand what is happening and refuses to go. But even so, does this constitute the initiation of force?
Perhaps an analogy will help. Suppose someone is on a piece of property and you drag him kicking and screaming off the property. You have certainly forced the person, but have you initiated force against him? That depends on whose property it is and whether or not the person is there against the owner's will. In other words, it depends on whether or not the owner has a right to have the person removed from his property. If he does, then it is not the initiation of force. If he does not, then it is.
So, does the parent have a right to force the child to go to the dentist? Yes, if the parent is responsible for the child's welfare and the child refuses to go. But in that case, dragging the child to the dentist does not constitute the initiation of force any more than dragging a trespasser off of one's property. At best, it can be characterized as 'defensive' force, because the parent is simply defending his right (and responsibility) to provide for his child's health and wellbeing.
- Bill
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