| | Ed:
Here is an example I am aware of -- an actual personal anecdote -- that relates to differences in perception, or at least processing/filtering -- of the same aural stimuli.
When I am in a crowded room, like a bar or restaurant, and there is a general 'din' -- a loud buzz of conversation -- my wife reports that she has no trouble conversing back and forth, and can hear me speaking plainly. She is able to 'focus' her hearing and tune out the general din.
What I hear over time is inreasingly just the din, and it seems like I can hear crystal clearly the conversations of folks several tables away, as if I was sitting with them, with no effort at all, but I must strain to hear what my wife, who is sitting right next to me, is saying. The people in the booth with me, immediately in front of me, all sound like they are underwater, while the people far from me sound like they are speaking on top of a pristine mountaintop through clear Alpine air. My 'selectivity' is inverted. There might even be a name for this minor affliction, I don't know. It is not debilitating in any way, just a little annoying.
(I'm not ignoring my wife or trying to ignore my wife. This happens whenever I'm in one of these crowded room din things, no matter who I am with.)
It gets increasingly worse the longer I'm in the crowded room.
I'm not sure this is an example of perception; it might be the inversion of a lower level aural processing function, like a 'filter' that in me, for whatever reason, insists on being inverted in that situation. It is an example, I think, of a different 'weighting' function being applied to the stimuli presented by my ears.
It gives me a hint, it helps me imagine, I think, that there might be something to your suggestion that we could detect differences in perceiving musical notes that were discordant (ie, not miraculaously off by precisely one octave.)
But the 'personal preferences' explanation for the chocolate/vanillia preferences still pointa to an ability to self-weight 'the same' sensory inputs differently. If we are all given essentially 'the same' wetbits(that may be true in a coarse sense, but I don't think it is true in an absolute/detailed sense), and those wetbits are presented with 'the same' sensory inputs, then only a difference in weighting somewhere in all that neural network-like processing can explain why we reach different conclusions on the subject of subjective tastes.
And if such differences are not only possible but likely and necessary in order to explain subjectively different conclusions, then I don't see why they are unlikely in the functioning of the lower level neural-network like processes that present (and process and 'filter') sensory input to our perception/cognition wet bits.
We subjectively resonate differently to the objective world. It is what makes us individuals, and not identical cogs, marshallable bees in a giant bee colony, resonating identically in all respects to the same sensory inputs.
It doesn't bother me in the least that we may ultimately be machine like in our processing or that we share undeniable and obvious similarities. What I find little evidence of is that we are thouroughly identical machines at the mpst fundamental level. The possible combinations of those similar wetbits into subjectively weighted neural-net like processes is so great that it insures uniqueness. We are fundamentally individuals at our topmost levels of processing, not identical cogs. Yet we share more than enough similarities to adequately function together and cooperate.
Others view ourselves as fundamentally identical, with just enough individuality so that we know where to mail the 1040's to.
regards Fred
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