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Post 260

Wednesday, October 12, 2005 - 9:13pmSanction this postReply
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Michael!

I really can't tell if you're merely yanking my chain here, please be more forthright about this. My interest is to create value on earth (to really live), and I would like for you to help me in this grand effort by being forthcoming. So whassup?! Did you REALLY think 'theory' is a good choice? Do you want to work with me, to make this world a better place?

Ed
[note: I just re-watched Braveheart, and I'm literally fricken' stoked about truly livin'!]
(Edited by Ed Thompson
on 10/12, 9:15pm)


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Post 261

Wednesday, October 12, 2005 - 11:13pmSanction this postReply
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Michael, you wrote,

Bill,

"A right qua moral principle is a bit more sophisticated than a simple reaction against an attack."

So who said it was a simple reaction against an attack? Certainly not I. You may want to go back, and re-read my reply.

You continued, "The formulation of a moral principle that impacts on society needs to be founded on some kind of ethics."

I agree. Where have I ever denied this? My point was simply that the Rand's ethics SHOULD be adopted, even if no one does adopt it, and therefore, that a right qua moral principle should be recognized and respected even if no one does recognize and respect it. To say that such a moral obligation exists, even if no one recognizes and respects it is simply another way of saying that "a right" qua freedom of action exists even if no one recognizes and respects it.

- Bill



Post 262

Wednesday, October 12, 2005 - 11:19pmSanction this postReply
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Bill,

=================
... Rand's ethics SHOULD be adopted, even if no one does adopt it, and therefore, that a right qua moral principle should be recognized and respected even if no one does recognize and respect it.
=================

I agree. Folks ought to adopt Rand (ie. it is in their self-interest to do so).

Ed



Post 263

Thursday, October 13, 2005 - 12:07amSanction this postReply
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Bill,

I agree that Objectivist ethics should be adopted. However a code of values (ethics) - i.e. moral principles - must be drawn up and chosen. What is metaphysically absolute are the referents of such principles "out there in existence, in reality," as Rand says. Principles qua principles do not exist until they are conceived. A moral principle is not a metaphysical entity - nor metaphysical absolute. It is based on them and thus becomes a moral absolute - meaning that so long as reason is used, such principle will always be able to be derived logically from metaphysical absolutes.

That goes for rights also.

But they are principles, not things.



Ed,

I was yanking your chain a bit, but it is frustrating to discuss a word that has at least three different definitions with a person who says - all at the same time (1) yes, three definitions of rights do exist, (2) only one definition exists, (3) well, one definition actually exists but there are counterfeit definitions - then denies that a whole field of philosophy exists except in one version.

I can't go there. Sorry. Too fanatical. The most I can go is to state that Objectivist philosophy is true (the essentials, anyway) and the others are false to varying degrees (meaning that parts are true).

I cannot say that other philosophies do not exist or that other moral codes doe not exist or that other systems of rights do not exist - when I observe them.

Not up for playing with semantics either. I'm more interested in the issues and concepts.

There's a world to change. This line of trying to hijack a word or concept always gets nowhere in history. And it never will. People resist word/concept hijacking - and I say rightly so.

How's that for a right?

Michael


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Post 264

Thursday, October 13, 2005 - 11:04amSanction this postReply
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Michael wrote,

"I agree that Objectivist ethics should be adopted. However a code of values (ethics) - i.e. moral principles - must be drawn up and chosen."

If we understand "ethics" as a "code of values," i.e., as a system of moral principles that is recognized and accepted, then yes, these must be "drawn up and chosen." But if we understand it simply as conduct required for man's survival qua man, then it does not presuppose man's recognition and acceptance. Ethics can be understood as the kind of conduct that people ~should~ engage in ~if~ they are to survive and prosper, even if they fail to recognize it. We can say, for example, that people should adopt a certain principle of conduct - e.g., the principle of rights - even if it has yet to be adopted (i.e., drawn up and chosen), because it is in their interests to adopt it, which is simply another way of saying that people's rights should be recognized and respected, even if no one actually does recognize and respect them. Accordingly, an Indian tribe that attacks another tribe and slaughters its members violates their rights.

I agree that the concept of "rights" does not refer to "things" in the sense of physical existents, but it does refer to a fact of reality - to the fact that people are entitled to be free from the initiation of physical force. It is common today, of course, to claim that people are entitled to all sorts of things to which they are not ~in fact~ entitled, e.g., a good education, adequate medical care, a well-paying job, etc. But the fact that there are counterfeit entitlements does not alter the fact that a right, properly construed, is a (legitimate) entitlement. If I have a right to freedom, then I am entitled to it, which is simply another way of saying that people ought to respect my freedom and are justified in defending it.

You wrote, "What is metaphysically absolute are the referents of such principles 'out there in existence, in reality,' as Rand says. Principles qua principles do not exist until they are conceived."

Right, but their referents do, because the referent of a principle is a fact. Moral principles refer to the fact that if you want to achieve your values, then you must undertake a certain course of action. The principle that if you want X, then you ought (morally) to do Y refers to the fact that Y is a necessary means to X. Now if Y is a necessary means to X, then that is a fact whether anyone recognizes it or not. It is a fact that if people want to be free to achieve their values, then they ought to respect each other's freedom, which is another way of saying that the non-initiation of force is required in order for people to achieve their values in a social context. This social requirement, according to which people are entitled to have their freedom respected, did not arise simply because they recognized it. It was a fact that existed independently of their recognition; otherwise, there would have been nothing to recognize. You can't recognize something that doesn't already exist.

In short, the term "moral principle" contains a certain ambiguity, because it can refer simply to the conception of what is required for man's survival qua man, or it can refer to the requirement itself - to the fact that in order to survive and prosper, man must engage in a certain course of action. Insofar as it refers to the latter, human rights can be said to exist regardless of whether or not anyone recognizes or respects them. When Rand referred to a "right" as "a moral principle defining and sanctioning man's freedom of action in a social context," I believe that she was referring to ~the fact~ that people are morally obligated to respect the freedom of others, not just to their ~conception~ of that moral obligation.

- Bill



Post 265

Thursday, October 13, 2005 - 1:18pmSanction this postReply
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Bill,

You hit the crux of the current misunderstanding with the following two statements:
If we understand "ethics" as a "code of values," i.e., as a system of moral principles that is recognized and accepted, then yes, these must be "drawn up and chosen." But if we understand it simply as conduct required for man's survival qua man, then it does not presuppose man's recognition and acceptance.

(...)

I agree that the concept of "rights" does not refer to "things" in the sense of physical existents, but it does refer to a fact of reality - to the fact that people are entitled to be free from the initiation of physical force.
Rational version

In the first instance, the conduct you refer to is based on causality. Requirements alone (you must do such-and-such action or die), and metaphysical alternatives alone involving causality (this-and-that results in living while such-and-such results in dying) are not ethics. Volition is missing.

"I choose to use my mind in a conceptual manner based on reality" is an extremely moral thing to say. Merely having a mind that works in a conceptual manner based on reality is not morality. The concept of ethics arises with the choice to use it.

Thus "conduct required for man's survival qua man" is not a code of values (which are chosen). It is a list of requirements that may be used as the basis for drawing up such a code or rejected. The truth or falsehood of the moral code is determined by what it is based on (including causality, i.e. identity, or not).

The same thinking goes for rights. Entitlement of anything does not exist as a metaphysical fact. There are facts based on causality that will result in metaphysical alternatives (living or dying) - and there is nothing anyone can do about them. No volition is involved. These facts are not rights, though. They are metaphysical requirements.

That is why the "right to life" has no meaning whatsoever in nature that is divorced from other human beings. There is merely the fact of living and the metaphysical requirements governing life. The only entitlement a living entity has is that it exists. What happens with man is that when he gets together with other men, he can either choose a form of living with others, or he can be dominated by the strongest and bloodiest. Choosing is much better - but not the only alternative.

So he looks at his own nature and the nature of existence, sees the requirements for living and thriving and chooses a moral code to guide his choices so that meeting such conditions is the goal of actions chosen. Then he decides that living and thriving is a good thing for everybody, so he chooses moral principles that involve other men that can be applied to all men (and obligate them to refrain from doing certain actions). He calls these principles rights.

The need for a right (a chosen principle of social conduct) to ensure that one of the metaphysical alternatives is attained (survival) is not the right in itself. Other alternatives are available (death, for instance). A need or requirement is merely a need or requirement. It is not a right. A right - the entitlement - comes with volition. It is chosen. Men choose to entitle each other with a moral rule that guarantees that other men will not pose a threat to their existence - in addition to the normal threats imposed by raw nature.

(Now what I have been discussing above is a rational view of rights. The irrational version, keeping the framework that has been in place throughout history, goes something like this:)

Irrational version

In the first instance, the conduct you refer to is based on obeying God. Requirements alone (you must do such-and-such an action or face God's wrath), and metaphysical alternatives alone involving obeying God (this-and-that results in God's favor while such-and-such results in God's wrath) are not ethics. Volition is missing.

"I choose to use my mind in a faith-like manner based on belief in God" is an extremely moral thing to say. Merely having a mind that [supposedly] works in a faith-like manner based on belief in God is not morality. The concept of ethics arises with the choice to use it.

Thus "conduct required for serving God qua creature created by Him" is not a code of values (which are chosen). It is a list of requirements that may be used as the basis for drawing up such a code or rejected. The truth or falsehood of the moral code is determined by what it is based on (including causality, i.e. God's will, or not).

The same thinking goes for rights. Entitlement of anything does not exist, except for the fact that God is entitled to all He creates. There are facts based on the will of God that will result in His alternatives (His favor or His wrath) - and there is nothing anyone can do about them. No volition is involved. These facts are not rights, though. They are God's requirements.

That is why the "right to life" has no meaning whatsoever without God and divorced from other human beings. There is merely the fact of living and God's requirements governing life. The only entitlement a living entity has is that it God created it. What happens with man is that when he gets together with other men, he can either choose a form of living with others, or he can be dominated by the strongest and bloodiest. Choosing is much better - but not the only alternative.

So he looks at his own nature and the nature of God's will, sees the requirements for living and serving God and chooses a moral code to guide his choices so that meeting such conditions is the goal of actions chosen. Then he decides that living and serving God is a good thing for everybody, so he chooses moral principles that involve other men that can be applied to all men (and obligate them to refrain from doing certain actions and to do other actions). He calls these principles rights.

The need for a right (a chosen principle of social conduct) to ensure that one of God's alternatives is attained (God's favor) is not the right in itself. Other alternatives are available (God's wrath, for instance). A need or requirement is merely a need or requirement. It is not a right. A right - the entitlement - comes with volition. It is chosen. Men choose to entitle each other with a moral rule that guarantees that other men will not pose a threat to their serving God's will - in addition to the normal threats imposed by God's wrath.

Comment

Now do you see what I am talking about? What needs to be fought is the metaphysical fact of God'e existence or not - and the use of reason or faith. God does not exist (the one in the present form as presented, which requires negation of the five senses) and faith does not exist as a valid form of using the mind.

This same exercise can be done with society - or even with other entities that are used to substitute the individual human being as bases.

What is being fought nowadays is whether irrational rights exist or not. Of course they do, since men choose them (the moral principles, even though they do not choose the requirements they are based on). If you choose a rational metaphysical foundation, then you cannot help but arrive at certain moral principles and rights. But if you choose an irrational foundation, you will still arrive at moral principles and rights - but not very good ones for those who choose a rational foundation, since they will infringe the [rationally derived] rights of some.

Saying that irrational moral principles and rights do not exist diverts the attention from the real battle, correct metaphysical identification, and - as I keep stating - statists cash in on it with a pat on the head and a huge smile.

Michael


Post 266

Thursday, October 13, 2005 - 6:56pmSanction this postReply
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Michael, what you seem to be saying here is this (in my own words):

don't bother arguing against someone's conclusions, argue against their premises -- and their conclusions will fall of their own weight
Michael, is that what you're saying?

Applying this to rights (which are "conclusions") then, we ought not argue against "wrong" rights directly -- this'll get no where, and embolden the statists. Instead, we run a conceptual analysis, like Rand had endorsed: What, in reality, led to this concept (of rights)? To what, in reality, does this concept refer? 

That seems pretty reasonable, Michael, would you agree?

Ed


Post 267

Thursday, October 13, 2005 - 7:45pmSanction this postReply
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Ed,

That is a good part of it.

You never convince anyone of anything by telling them what they think and believe simply does not exist.

You must show them where the fallacies are. What is good and what is evil. What is healthy and what is rotten. Not that they - and 99% of the rest of humanity - are insane.

Using the form of saying, for example, that the divine right of kings was overthrown by the institution of individual rights - with a war fought over it, then turn around and saying that the divine right of kings is not a right at all, just throws a smoke-screen around your own arguments - because that way of saying things sounds like a contradiction.

People listen, scratch their head, then change the channel.

That is why keeping the conceptual framework and working within it (i.e. using the term "rights" to be a generic term for moral principles applied to society), qualifying your position by pointing out what the grounds being used are (especially going back to the metaphysical axioms), is so much more effective. (It is even more correct precision-wise, but I don't want to go off on that tangent since you are starting to understand what I am saying.)

People will respond thoughtfully to a statement like "a right to a job is an evil right because someone must be forced to provide it, at gun point if necessary, thus to ensure one right of one man, another right of another man must be violated."

They will not respond to "a right to a job does not exist because someone must be forced to provide it, at gun point if necessary, thus to ensure the job right of one man, another right of another man must be violated, and that makes the job right not a right at all."

That sounds like politicians talking. Pure bullshit.

A real good reason why they will not respond, also, is that they will have a government publication that says something like, "your rights as an American include having a job." I personally have seen this kind of literature.

They will look at the publication, then look at you. The USA government is telling them that they have a right. They see people getting the benefit of such right. You are saying that the USA government is delusional, because such right does not exist at all. Still, they see people getting the benefit of such right. They will scratch their head then change the channel.

They tune out the rest of what you have to say.

Think about it. Do you want to change the world for real based on ideas, or do you want to rewrite the English language? Because that is precisely what Libertarians are trying to do - rewrite the English language. That is why they just don't get elected. (There are other reasons, of course, but that is the major one that I can see - not just the problem of being little and going up against big politics.)

Michael


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Post 268

Friday, October 14, 2005 - 6:15amSanction this postReply
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MSK wrote:

In the first instance, the conduct you refer to [required for man's survival qua man] is based on causality. Requirements alone (you must do such-and-such action or die), and metaphysical alternatives alone involving causality (this-and-that results in living while such-and-such results in dying) are not ethics. Volition is missing.
This could hardly be more wrong and contra Rand! Conduct "man qua man" is man exercising his rational faculty to sustain and enjoy life. To do that requires making choices and acting on them, i.e. volition. Meeting the requirements of life is a big part of ethics. This thread has been hijacked into Kelly v. Rand.

MSK's dichotomy of rational rights versus irrational rights is far too simplistic and an incompetent diagnosis . The latter "has been in place throughout history", is based on obeying God, with volition missing, and statists cash in on it. This ignores "natural rights" theory. Read Locke. His justification for rights has nothing to do with obeying God. It is instead a remedy for a "state of nature," in which each man is left only to his own judgment about what is just. Such "state of nature" too easily leads to injustice. So men consent to a "social contract" in the form of civil government, whose aim is the preservation of life, freedom, and property, as they belong to each man under natural law. Again "volition missing" is completely wrong. Civil government, as he viewed it, is also a protection against bad rulers, i.e. statists.
 
There are also other versions of irrational rights, like "welfare rights" based simply on altruism, and "collectivist rights".

It's time to be frank. MSK's ideas on rights are like elephant dung - voluminous, half-digested, and malodorous.


Post 269

Friday, October 14, 2005 - 6:58amSanction this postReply
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Sorry Merlin,

You didn't even read Locke to say that. Maybe Googled something.

I won't debate your half-assed horseshit, though. Just argument for the sake of argument.

Michael

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Post 270

Friday, October 14, 2005 - 9:14amSanction this postReply
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Michael,

I think you are missing the point of my argument. Let me try again. I wrote, "If we understand 'ethics' as a 'code of values,' i.e., as a system of moral principles that is recognized and accepted, then yes, these must be 'drawn up and chosen. But if we understand it simply as conduct required for man's survival qua man, then it does not presuppose man's recognition and acceptance... I agree that the concept of 'rights' does not refer to 'things' in the sense of physical existents, but it does refer to a fact of reality - to the fact that people are entitled to be free from the initiation of physical force."

You replied, "In the first instance, the conduct you refer to is based on causality. Requirements alone (you must do such-and-such action or die), and metaphysical alternatives alone involving causality (this-and-that results in living while such-and-such results in dying) are not ethics. Volition is missing."

But you are ignoring what I said between the elipses, wherein I wrote, "Ethics can be understood as the kind of conduct that people ~should~ engage in ~if~ they are to survive and prosper, even if they fail to recognize it. We can say, for example, that people should adopt a certain principle of conduct - e.g., the principle of rights - even if it has yet to be adopted (i.e., drawn up and chosen), because it is in their interests to adopt it, which is simply another way of saying that people's rights should be recognized and respected, even if no one actually does recognize and respect them. Accordingly, an Indian tribe that attacks another tribe and slaughters its members violates their rights."

It is true that this conception of ethics is predicated on causality, but it is final, not efficient, causality. I.e., ~If~ you want to achieve your values, ~then~ you "ought" to make certain choices and perform certain actions. See in this connection, Rand's essay, "Causality versus Duty" in _Philosophy: Who Needs It."

At any rate, instead of the above quoted statement, I could have said: "Ethics can be understood as the kind of conduct that people ~should CHOOSE~ to engage in ~if~ they are to survive and prosper, even if they fail to recognize it. We can say, for example, that people ~should CHOOSE~ to adopt a certain principle of conduct - e.g., the principle of rights - even if it has yet to be adopted (i.e., drawn up and chosen), because it is in their interests to adopt it..."

I could have said this without changing the meaning of my original statement, but I thought it was understood.

You wrote, "I choose to use my mind in a conceptual manner based on reality" is an extremely moral thing to say. Merely having a mind that works in a conceptual manner based on reality is not morality. The concept of ethics arises with the choice to use it."

I wouldn't say that the concept of ethics arises with the choice to use it. Doesn't the concept have to exist prior to the choice to use it? How can you make a moral choice, if you don't know which choice is moral?

You continue, "Thus 'conduct required for man's survival qua man' is not a code of values (which are chosen)."

I agree. If we have not recognized the rights of others and chosen to respect them, then we have not adopted the Objectivist ethics as a code of values. The point I was making is that those whose rights we have not recognized and chosen to respect would still HAVE these rights and would still be ENTITLED to have them respected, because it would still be the case that we OUGHT to respect them.

You continue, "It is a list of requirements that may be used as the basis for drawing up such a code or rejected. The truth or falsehood of the moral code is determined by what it is based on (including causality, i.e. identity, or not)."

I agree, but the code of ethics is simply a description of those requirements and of the ultimate goal for which they are required. To say that I ought to choose certain actions if I want to survive is simply another way of saying that those actions are required for my survival - that they are a necessary means to my survival, which is my ultimate goal. In that respect, every prescriptive statement is nothing more than a descriptive statement, because it simply describes the necessary means to the achievement of your values by telling you what is required for their achievement. To say that I "ought" to do X, ~if~ I want to achieve Y is simply to say that, ~given my desire for X~, Y is the necessary means to its achievement.

You continue, "The same thinking goes for rights. Entitlement of anything does not exist as a metaphysical fact."

I don't know what you mean by "metaphysical" in this context. I wouldn't say that all facts are ~metaphysical~ facts, unless by "metaphysical," you simply mean "pertaining to reality," in which case, "metaphysical" is redundant, because all facts are facts of reality. But I would certainly say that an entitlement to freedom of action exists as a fact of reality, because it exists even if no one recognizes it. In other words, it does not exist merely as an idea in someone's mind, if that is what you're suggesting.

You write, "There are facts based on causality that will result in metaphysical alternatives (living or dying) - and there is nothing anyone can do about them. No volition is involved. These facts are not rights, though. They are metaphysical requirements."

But the point I was making is that a right, understood as freedom from the initiation of force, does not refer simply to the fact that such freedom is required for man's proper survival; it also refers to the fact that man has an obligation to respect that freedom, if he wishes to achieve his values. In other words, my point was that this moral obligation exists regardless of whether or not anyone recognizes or respects it.

You write, "So he looks at his own nature and the nature of existence, sees the requirements for living and thriving and chooses a moral code to guide his choices so that meeting such conditions is the goal of actions chosen. Then he decides that living and thriving is a good thing for everybody, so he chooses moral principles that involve other men that can be applied to all men (and obligate them to refrain from doing certain actions). He calls these principles rights."

He may or may not choose such a moral code, and he may or may not choose to respect the freedom of others, but even if he doesn't, other people are still "ENTITLED" to have their freedom respected. In other words, it is still the case that he "OUGHT" to respect their freedom, ~if~ he wants to achieve his values.

You continue, "The need for a right (a chosen principle of social conduct) to ensure that one of the metaphysical alternatives is attained (survival) is not the right in itself. Other alternatives are available (death, for instance). A need or requirement is merely a need or requirement. It is not a right. A right - the entitlement - comes with volition. It is chosen."

No, the entitlement is not chosen; it is recognized or identified. You are writing as if rights were created rather than discovered.

You continue, "Men choose to entitle each other with a moral rule that guarantees that other men will not pose a threat to their existence - in addition to the normal threats imposed by raw nature."

Here you are using "entitlement" in a legal sense, whereas I was using it in a strictly moral sense, as the ~basis~ for a legal entitlement. It is true that legal entitlements are a product of our choices, because they involve laws that we choose to pass, but the moral entitlements on which these laws are ~supposed~ to be based do not arise because of our choices. On the contrary, these entitlements involve the inescapable fact that ~if~ we want to achieve our values, then we ~ought~ to respect each other's freedom of action. And this is true, even if we happen to choose a legal system that abrogates our freedom. Our right to freedom does not depend on the choices that we happen to make; it is a fact of reality that is independent of those choices.

- Bill


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Post 271

Friday, October 14, 2005 - 9:53amSanction this postReply
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I agree with Bill's specific criticisms.

Ed

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Post 272

Friday, October 14, 2005 - 10:27amSanction this postReply
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And I concurr...

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Post 273

Friday, October 14, 2005 - 1:56pmSanction this postReply
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Guys,

Kitten just arrived in Florida for a 3 day visit and on Monday I will have a minor operation, so I am out of this loop for awhile.

I do have responses for your observations, Bill, but they are going to have to wait.

Just one question to chew on. If an irrational right is not a right and altruism is not ethics, then is Kant not a philosopher? Using the same logical criteria as you guys are using, what he wrote (like Critique of Pure Reason) is not philosophy. (Don't forget that ethics is a division of philosophy.)

Michael

Post 274

Friday, October 14, 2005 - 5:16pmSanction this postReply
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Michael-
You and Kat have a great weekend.  I don't know what that surgery is, but I hope to see you back soon.


Post 275

Saturday, October 15, 2005 - 6:10amSanction this postReply
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I agree with Jody's warm-hearted comments.

Ed

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Post 276

Sunday, October 16, 2005 - 2:03pmSanction this postReply
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Michael,

First things first. So, enjoy your friend's visit and good luck on your surgery. I look forward to your reply, but I can certainly wait on that.

Best,

Bill

Post 277

Sunday, October 16, 2005 - 7:25pmSanction this postReply
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Kat just left for Chicago.

//;-(

(Tomorrow the scope-saw. I am fixing knee cartilage - a large hunk of meniscus that broke loose in my right knee. I asked the doctor if my following description of what will take place is accurate and he said, "Yup." The cartilage broke off in a jagged manner and it is hard to get it into a position where it will grow back onto the bone and onto itself. He is going to take a gigantic mother of a hypo needle with a camera and buzz saw on the tip, jam it into my knee and saw down the edges of the cartilage and the bone until they are smooth enough that they will grow back together. Gonna be a real party, baby. Hell on wheels. btw - I flat out refused the narcotic pain killer, so I might get a bit grumpy if I have the head to post. Thank you folks for the well wishes.)

Michael
(Edited by Michael Stuart Kelly on 10/16, 7:26pm)


Post 278

Monday, October 17, 2005 - 8:11pmSanction this postReply
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     Here I finally get back and what do I find? I find that mucho labyrinthine arguments have been added, that my original Rand quotings are getting re-thrown all over the place, and am ready for a continued fray with you, Mike, and...what do you do?

     You go get knee surgery.

     Like, you got a 'right' to do that? In the middle of all this?

     Boy, did you duck in time! What an excuse!

     Ah'll be bahk...when you're ready for a good soccer match.

     Take care.

MTFBWY
LLAP
J:D


Post 279

Monday, October 17, 2005 - 8:49pmSanction this postReply
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John,

I hate to have sounded like an alarmist, but my operation seemed like it was not an operation at all. I was stoned out of my mind for a while on narcotics, then after sleeping it off, there is no pain (so far).

Damn fine doctor.

Now let's see if my leg does not fall off after a while. (Six weeks recovery time.)

Back to the arguments.

Bill, you wrote:
In other words, my point was that this moral obligation exists regardless of whether or not anyone recognizes or respects it.
That statement is about the closest I have seen anybody come to defining Kant's theory of moral duty without mentioning either Kant or duty.

That comment is on very thin ice Objectivism-wise. You really do need a premise for that - and not just existence either.

It is a duty because it is a duty. Man's choice is to obey it or not, but it still is a duty. Is that what you are saying?

Adam got it right in dividing up rights into different concepts. We probably disagree on his middle category, but Ayn Rand did not write about that anyway. Essentially, she wrote about two kinds of rights.

Conceptual rights - This is a category of philosophy like metaphysics, epistemology, etc.

Normative rights - This is which rights are proper, correct, good, evil, etc. Normative rights ALWAYS needs a premise, a philosophical foundation that goes back to metaphysics (like Rand's law of identity).

(Natural Law is a whole other can of worms for another time.)

It is only when a philosophical foundation is used as a qualifier can other rights be said to not exist. For example, under Objectivism, the divine right of kings does not exist as a right, but under medieval Christianity, it did.

Michael


Edit - This post of mine on another thread has much bearing on our discussion. It discusses the inalienable right to life (or not) of fetuses.

(Edited by Michael Stuart Kelly on 10/17, 9:07pm)


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