| | These last few posts have been illuminating. It appears to me that each of us is focusing on a slightly different area of this topic, so our comments to one other don't necessarily end up addressing the point that the other person was making. I'm sure I'm as guilty of this as anyone and I apologize if it sometimes seems as though I missed or ignored your points. Let me summarize a few observations here.
In my case, my primary focus has been on examining the issue of agency between values and actions that I believed Bill was arguing. Everything I have written so far has been directed at trying to identify exactly what these "values" are and then examining whether they can exert some sort of control - specifically, a necessitation control - over our actions. My conclusion was that metaphysically, values reside in our mind as one specie of high-level concepts, and as such, I can not see how they could exercise direct control over our actions any more than other types of concepts. Therefore, I reject the idea of "soft" or "combatibilistic" determinism and remain a believer that all of our actions are within the direct control of our free will. I do agree that our values inform our goals and that our goals (which are another specie of concepts) contain a plan of action for achieving values. I believe that once these goals are formulated, they do motivate us, acting as a guide for our actions. But, despite having values and goals, it still remains an act of free will to actually initiate any specific action. A rational person generally does act in accordance with their values and goals so it may appear as though those value and goals "determine" the actions, but I think that there is plenty of real-world evidence of irrational action to dispel any suggestion that actions are necessitated by values and goals.
Jon is arguing that we have free will to choose our personal values; that this process is originated by us and is therefore not "determined" in any mechanistic sense. I agree. He then seems to be saying that once our values are selected, chosen, or decided upon, they then do determine our subsequent actions from which we can not deviate until we alter our values. I'm not sure if this is a position with which Bill would agree with fully or not. Later, in response to Joe, Jon states:
> [A] "value" is a concept meaning that which one acts to gain/keep, as Ayn Rand said. It's the thing that > a person wants enough (relative to the other things in his own value system) to cause action."
Here, Jon is agreeing with me that a value is a concept. He then goes on to define it as a concept desirable enough to cause a person to act. I think Jon is focusing on a different concern then I am which is OK, but with regard to my quest to explore the agency connection between values and actions, I am not satisfied with this. First of all, the definition simply asserts that values cause actions. Therefore, no argument is possible because action proves value and inaction disproves it, QED. Secondly, nowhere in this definition is an explanation of how the value concept initiates, let alone compels ones actions.
Joe and Ed seems to be addressing another problem I am having with the use of "value" or "value hierarchy" in these discussions. Please correct me if I am wrong here, but in all of the examples Bill and Jon offer regarding the connection between value and action, the only way we ever discover with any certainty just what an individual values most highly is by way of their actions. As soon as they act in service of some goal, that goal then becomes, by definition, that individual's highest value (within their context of the moment).
Some of us are arguing that right up until the moment of action, we can exercise complete free will and change our minds about what we wish to do (we can snap our fingers or not snap our fingers, etc.). I think Jon agrees with this but I'm not really sure where Bill stands, as I'm unclear about how his soft determinism actually gets applied to the steps in the thinking/acting process and whether he believes that we have true free will anywhere in that chain. In either case, as soon as some action is initiated, by Bill's and Jon's (and they say Rand's) definition, that action was necessitated by some specific value. Well, in one sense, I'm willing to concede that for a normal, rational, conscious, human mind, most actions do have some goal associated with each action, and in this sense those actions are indeed dependent upon (i.e., influenced by) those goals. But that relationship exists because the individual freely chose to act in service of the goal (and its underlying values) and not because the existence of the goal inside someone's mind acquired a power to necessitate the action. So, I'm saying that for a rational mind, it is an act of free will which focuses on a particular goal out of many alternatives, and it is another act of free will to decide to act in service of that goal and at any time we can choose to not act, stop acting or switch our actions to another goal and abandon the previous one. Now, I don't think that either Bill or Jon is denying that we can and do act in these ways, I believe that they would simply argue that in order to change direction, a different goal (and its values) would have to first be selected. Again, I don't disagree with that; its just acknowledging that our actions are not utterly random but have a purpose - the achievement of some goal.
If this is all that is meant by "compatibilism" or "soft determinism", then I do not disagree with it. But I think more is implied. Bill has offered examples where he says that an individual who believes in a certain set of principles has "no reason" to vote for a political candidate with contrary views and is therefore necessitated by his values to vote in a particular way. I disagree. I suggest that an individual can introspect on their values, can come to know them with clarity and accuracy, and then make a conscious choice to act in contradiction to them, thus proving that none of their values necessitated their action. I'm pretty sure Bill would respond that the desire to act contrary to all of ones values had then, in fact, become that person's new highest value and was what was actually responsible for and necessitated that action. If that indeed is the argument, then I say that this is a reductio ad absurdum which tells us nothing and is self-fulfilling, since no action can escape from in its circular logic. Rational people act in service of their goals and this is what connects values to actions, but people can also lower their level of consciousness to such a degree that their actions can be divorced from reason and their values.
Rand did define value as "that which one acts to gain or keep". In a moral context this is a wonderful formulation as it distinguishes between thoughts in ones head that lie dormant and have the same moral efficacy as wishes, from those that are acted upon and thereby have the possibility of producing actual measurable benefits. But I assert again that Rand did not intend this definition to extend to the metaphysical realm and be any sort of comment on the issue of free will.
Regards, -- Jeff
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