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Post 100

Monday, February 6, 2006 - 12:40amSanction this postReply
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============
Here's a question your pal Ed might want to tackle: who was smarter, Ayn Rand or Thomas Aquinas?
============

Oh, dear fellow, nevermind that young lad, Ed -- he is just a piece of lint on the coat-tails of the likes of me!

;-)

Aquinas was, perhaps, smarter, but Rand was oh-so-much better (than Aquinas ever was, or even ever will be). There is a great deal to be said for context, my dear Mr. Bissell. Think of the era in which he wrote! How trail-blazing of him! Don't you agree?! You wrote ...

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Rand is easier to read, so that makes her errors easier to spot, as well. Maybe not so smart, huh. :-)
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Only for the mediocre-minded, my new friend. Clarity is something that has no inherent upper-limit (ie. it is impossible to be "too clear" about something).

My best regards,

Margaret
[:-)]


Post 101

Monday, February 6, 2006 - 1:59amSanction this postReply
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It's been about five days since I've had the computer-screen-reading stamina to look to see what's been happening on this list. I signed on with the intention, which I'll pursue, of stating that I can't continue to participate on any elist forum. My problems with reading a computer screen (due to long-term-aftermath neuromuscular results of a mild case of childhood polio) are worsening. The "writing", as it were, is "on the wall" re the advisability of my discontinuing any attempt at engaging in a "listlife."

So I'll bid you all "adieu" as a participant.

However, I must admit that I'm astonished to discover developments which have transpired on this thread since I last posted. Roger's using an alter-ego again? Why? Near as I can tell from a quick skim of the "Artemis" posts, because of his having "apoplexy" at my describing Bill as habitually contradicting himself on these subjects. But...so what, from Roger's standpoint? And I'm mystified as to why Roger wouldn't recognize that to speak of "mind" both as a brain-activity and as "a part" of the brain (or body) doesn't scan. Ah, well. (I might at a later time attempt to read the whole sequence to see if I can figure out what point Roger is making, but not now.)

Ellen

___


Post 102

Monday, February 6, 2006 - 7:33amSanction this postReply
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Ellen, I'll miss you. Although we do have our disagreements, I was always looking out for your contributions, which I always found a pleasure to read, they were intelligent and never bombastic or condescending as so many other posts are.

Post 103

Monday, February 6, 2006 - 1:43pmSanction this postReply
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In a departing post, Ellen Stuttle writes:

I must admit that I'm astonished to discover developments which have transpired on this thread since I last posted. Roger's using an alter-ego again? Why? Near as I can tell from a quick skim of the "Artemis" posts, because of his having "apoplexy" at my describing Bill as habitually contradicting himself on these subjects. But...so what, from Roger's standpoint? And I'm mystified as to why Roger wouldn't recognize that to speak of "mind" both as a brain-activity and as "a part" of the brain (or body) doesn't scan. Ah, well. (I might at a later time attempt to read the whole sequence to see if I can figure out what point Roger is making, but not now.)

The problem here may turn on the word "part." Is running part of the legs, or digestion part of the stomach. Not really. Running is a function of the legs, and digestion, a function of the stomach. But as functions of bodily parts, they are definitely part of the body itself; there is no such thing as disembodied running or digestion. Similarly, vision is not so much "part" of the eye, as it is a function of the eye (or a sensory manifestation of its function). In the same way, vision can also be considered part of the body, as there is no such thing as disembodied vision, unmediated by an organ of perception. This brings us to the relationship between the mind and the brain. Analogously, the mind is not, strictly speaking, "part" of the brain (any more than brain activity is), but it is part of the body in the sense that it is a function, attribute or manifestation of the brain, which is itself part of the body. There is no such thing as disembodied thought, any more than there is disembodied vision.

The "mind-body" problem arises from a faulty premise -- of the mind as distinct from the body. It is as though one had posited an attribute-entity problem -- a problem of how an attribute could be part of the entity, when it is distinct from the entity -- of how it could be material when only the entity itself is material. The answer is: an entity is its attributes. It is not as though the attributes existed apart from the entity and were joined together to form a unified whole. They are the entity. If the entity is material, its attributes are material. Insofar as the mind is an attribute of the brain, it is no less material than the brain is. There are not two substances, mind and matter, any more than there are two substances, entity and attribute. There are only material entities. Mind is an attribute of a material organ.

This is not to deny that there is a relevant and meaningful distinction between the physical and the mental -- between physiology and psychology -- but that distinction is not between mind and matter; it is between the function of the mind as an attribute of the brain and the function of the other bodily organs.

- Bill



(Edited by William Dwyer
on 2/06, 1:51pm)


Post 104

Monday, February 6, 2006 - 7:57pmSanction this postReply
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Great analogy, Bill (Entity vs. Attribute ~ Body vs. Mind).

Ed


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Post 105

Monday, February 6, 2006 - 11:52pmSanction this postReply
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In a departing post, Ellen Stuttle writes:
I must admit that I'm astonished to discover developments which have transpired on this thread since I last posted. Roger's using an alter-ego again? Why? Near as I can tell from a quick skim of the "Artemis" posts, because of his having "apoplexy" at my describing Bill as habitually contradicting himself on these subjects. But...so what, from Roger's standpoint? And I'm mystified as to why Roger wouldn't recognize that to speak of "mind" both as a brain-activity and as "a part" of the brain (or body) doesn't scan. Ah, well. (I might at a later time attempt to read the whole sequence to see if I can figure out what point Roger is making, but not now.)
Bill Dwyer commented:
The problem here may turn on the word "part." Is running part of the legs, or digestion part of the stomach. Not really. Running is a function of the legs, and digestion, a function of the stomach. But as functions of bodily parts, they are definitely part of the body itself; there is no such thing as disembodied running or digestion. Similarly, vision is not so much "part" of the eye, as it is a function of the eye (or a sensory manifestation of its function). In the same way, vision can also be considered part of the body, as there is no such thing as disembodied vision, unmediated by an organ of perception. This brings us to the relationship between the mind and the brain. Analogously, the mind is not, strictly speaking, "part" of the brain (any more than brain activity is), but it is part of the body in the sense that it is a function, attribute or manifestation of the brain, which is itself part of the body. There is no such thing as disembodied thought, any more than there is disembodied vision.
This is approximately what I would have said in reply. However, I think there's more than can and should be said. When I used the word "part," I was using it not in the sense of physical part, but metaphysical part. In other words, not as a physically separable aspect of an organ's or organism's identity, but as a metaphysically inseparable aspect -- an aspect which is separable only in thought. I don't have the page reference available to me right now, but Rand uses "part" in this way in the Appendix of Introduction to Objectivist Epistemology. In general, an entity's attributes (including capacities) and actions are metaphysical parts of the entity. (In my "Artemis" post, I expressed it this way: "Mind, digestion, and locomotion are all PARTS of the body, in the sense that they are attributes of the body that we can observe." I think it "scans" quite well, thank you.)

Bill also wrote:
The "mind-body" problem arises from a faulty premise -- of the mind as distinct from the body. It is as though one had posited an attribute-entity problem -- a problem of how an attribute could be part of the entity, when it is distinct from the entity -- of how it could be material when only the entity itself is material. The answer is: an entity is its attributes. It is not as though the attributes existed apart from the entity and were joined together to form a unified whole. They are the entity. If the entity is material, its attributes are material. Insofar as the mind is an attribute of the brain, it is no less material than the brain is. There are not two substances, mind and matter, any more than there are two substances, entity and attribute. There are only material entities. Mind is an attribute of a material organ.
This line of reasoning actually works quite well, as can be seen if you reverse it. Humans are not only physical or material, but also conscious beings. So, if an entity (human being) is conscious, its attributes are conscious, and vice versa. Insofar as the mind is an attribute of the brain, the brain is no less conscious than the mind is. Insofar as the mind is an attribute of a human being, a human being is no less conscious than the mind is. In fact, the mind is a human brain or a human being being conscious! (This is the consequence of seeing its attributes as being the entity. And it contrasts fundamentally to the dualist, Cartesian view that human beings are conscious because they have some ghost lurking inside them that is conscious and that animates them.)

REB



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