About
Content
Store
Forum

Rebirth of Reason
War
People
Archives
Objectivism

Post to this threadMark all messages in this thread as readMark all messages in this thread as unreadBack one pagePage 0Page 1Page 2Page 3Page 4Page 5Forward one pageLast Page


Post 20

Sunday, January 22, 2006 - 4:57pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
Ed, you wrote,

"Allllright, so I messed up. These guys are 'concept dualists' -- not property dualists. Concept dualists hold that there is a multi-layered reality, property dualists merely hold that you can talk about one thing in 2 different ways (on 2 different levels). This is due to them both taking consciousness as an irreducible phenomenon."

Ed,

I'm afraid I think that you're still mixing up categories. Property dualists are people who think that consciousness and matter are "distinct and different phenomena in the world." (I'm quoting Searle's quote of a property dualist, but I don't know of whom, since the footnotes didn't pick up in the download of the file.) The property dualist thinks that both consciousness and material substance are properties of some types of organisms, and that these properties interact.

Your description "property dualists merely hold that you can talk about one thing in 2 different ways (on 2 different levels)" actually sounds closer to describing the theory which is called "dual-aspect" theory (most famously as presented by Spinoza), according to which there's an underlying one something which appears in two guises. (Bill quoted some material from *The Art of Living Consciously* in which NB proposes a dual-aspect idea.)

What Searle holds is that consciousness is *causally* reducible to the activity of the brain but not what he calls "ontologically" reducible, that it occupies a separate ontological category but one that is caused "bottom up." (I don't find his position coherent; I'm just reporting what he says.)

Now Harry Binswanger is a different situation. Harry has for years (so I hear second-hand; I'm not on his elist) been saying things which sound very like "property dualism." Thus I was wondering if he'd come right out and accepted the label.

Ellen


___
(Edited by Ellen Stuttle
on 1/22, 5:03pm)


Post 21

Sunday, January 22, 2006 - 6:20pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
Sarah,

"How many purples do you have?" I'll enjoy posing that question in the future. I was thinking the same thing.

Post 22

Sunday, January 22, 2006 - 6:28pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
Ellen,

============================
Property dualists are people who think that consciousness and matter are "distinct and different phenomena in the world." (I'm quoting Searle's quote of a property dualist ...
============================

Ellen, you are making a definition from a single instantiation (e.g. because one person who "claims" he's a property dualist thinks so, then ...). Here is a more objective definition of the concept, from http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~philos/MindDict/ ...


============================
property dualism

The view that the mental and the physical comprise two different classes of property that are coinstantiated in the same objects.

============================

If this Philosophy of Mind website is more correct (than competing alternatives), then this coinstantiation in the same object (the human being) is something that appears to be held by Binswanger AND Searle. After all, Searle holds that, if anything, the mind (ie. original intentionality) is a biological phenomenon.

From http://www.iep.utm.edu/d/dualism.htm ...


============================
Property dualists argue that mental states are irreducible attributes of brain states. For the property dualist, mental phenomena are non-physical properties of physical substances. Consciousness is perhaps the most widely recognized example of a non-physical property of physical substances. Still other dualists argue that mental states, dispositions and episodes are brain states, although the states cannot be conceptualized in exactly the same way without loss of meaning.
============================

Searle, as (at least) a concept dualist, might fit the last description -- where mental states can't be conceptualized the same way as physical states, without loss of meaning. At any rate, the property dualist is a stronger dualist than the concept (predicate) dualist, as exemplified by http://plato.stanford.edu/contents.html ...


============================
Whereas predicate dualism says that there are two essentially different kinds of predicates in our language, property dualism says that there are two essentially different kinds of property out in the world. Property dualism can be seen as a step stronger than predicate dualism.
============================

This rabbit hole is deep ...

Ed


Post 23

Sunday, January 22, 2006 - 7:06pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit

how many purples do you have?
Depends on how many are in front of me.......;-)

["curiouser and curiouser," said Alice, floating deeper into the rabbit hole.....]


Post 24

Sunday, January 22, 2006 - 8:19pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
Ed,

The material you quoted doesn't disagree with the quote I picked up from Searle. It just uses more technical language.

As to the comment: " [...] this coinstantiation in the same object (the human being) is something that appears to be held by Binswanger AND Searle," I recommend reading the article by Searle. You might, upon reading it, conclude that he himself doesn't understand what category he belongs in. But the title of the article is "Why I Am NOT [my emphasis] a Property Dualist." I think it would be good to consider that he might have reasons for specifically disclaiming the description "property dualist."

Ellen


___

Post 25

Sunday, January 22, 2006 - 8:22pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
I don't think asking whether there is a vision-eye or thought-brain "interaction" is even a valid question. Tell me, how many purples do you have?
Recall that this issue arose, because of NB's reference to "a problem that has troubled philosophers for centuries--'the mind-body problem,' the problem of accounting for the interaction of consciousness and physical reality." Also, remember Branden's argument that conscious evaluations like love and fear can have physical effects, like an increase in heart rate and other physical changes in the body; and that brain abnormalities, like Asperger's syndrome, can have mental effects, like uncontrollable anger. Hence, the inference that there is a mind-brain interaction. It's wrong, of course, for precisely the reasons I stated, but the question is not like asking how many purples you have. It's far more plausible than that, until you think it through and find that it doesn't make sense.

- Bill

P.S. I meant to thank Sarah for starting this thread. I've really enjoyed it, and its definitely a topic worth discussing!
(Edited by William Dwyer
on 1/22, 8:30pm)


Sanction: 4, No Sanction: 0
Sanction: 4, No Sanction: 0
Post 26

Sunday, January 22, 2006 - 8:39pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
Bill,

The mind-body problem is a non-problem, but not for the reasons you stated (if I understand them correctly. You're talking about your thought-brain interaction business, right?). Consciousness, whatever it may be, does not exist outside of physical reality. You've got a solution to a non-problem, which is why it doesn't make any sense.

Sarah

Post 27

Sunday, January 22, 2006 - 8:46pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
PS to Ed: You didn't answer about Harry B. Am I correct in concluding that you haven't heard anything to the effect that he's begun explicitly using the label "property dualist"?

Ellen

Post 28

Sunday, January 22, 2006 - 8:49pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
I wrote that a person is not the totality of his parts in interaction; he's an integration of the parts, or "an integrate," to use a term of Nathaniel Branden's. Ellen replied,
Same question, what have you added by referring to "an integrate" as the locus of the "doing"? Is the "integrate" some kind of entity which "has" the body parts (with which functions are performed)? Also: HOW does the "integrate" engage in, perform, undergo these functions?
Yes, an integrate is an entity that "has" the body parts with which functions are performed. I don't understand why you find this puzzling. As for "how" the person does these things, what is "how" supposed to mean in this context? Generally, we ask "how," when we don't understand the manner in which something is done, but in this case, the manner is obvious. The person does it by means of his faculties, the very faculties that we've been referring to. E.g., He thinks with his brain, sees with his eyes and digests with his stomach. What's not to understand? All explanations have to stop somewhere. Ultimately, they boil down to: that's just the nature of the acting entity, faculty or process.

- Bill

Post 29

Sunday, January 22, 2006 - 9:03pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
Bill, do you really not see that your language is that of talking about an entity which *isn't* the physical organism but is somehow doing to and being done to by the physical organism -- i.e., that old ghost in the machine rattling the parts and being rattled by them?

(This subject started on the other thread because of your objecting to Dennett's saying that there isn't a Cartesian "I," a...something...which is where it all comes together, in the brain. But you yourself are talking in Cartesian language. That's what I'm trying to point out to you.)

Ellen


___

Post 30

Sunday, January 22, 2006 - 9:16pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
Ellen, I'm absolutely baffled. My position is precisely the one that you're denying I hold. It is, and has always been, my position that the entity in question is the physical organism. It is the physical organism that is doing these things. What else could it be? There is no ghost in the machine. I thought my post on the relationship of the mind and brain made that absolutely clear. The mind is the brain identified introspectively.

- Bill

Post 31

Monday, January 23, 2006 - 4:46amSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
I don't see any difference between a person as "the totality of his parts in interaction" and a person as "an integration of the parts". The term "integration" doesn't add any new information.

Post 32

Monday, January 23, 2006 - 11:18amSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
I don't see any difference between a person as "the totality of his parts in interaction" and a person as "an integration of the parts". The term "integration" doesn't add any new information.
The parts of a collective can interact without being integrated in the sense that the parts of a living organism are. An "integrate" in this context refers to a single entity or organism whose parts are integrated towards the pursuit of a single end or goal. It's the difference between an organization and an organism, or between a collective and an individual. Collectivists typically make no such distinction. They treat the collective as if it were an individual. Quoting from Nathaniel Branden's The Psychology of Self-Esteem (1969):

[A]ll living entities possess a characteristic structure, the component parts of which function in such a way as to preserve the integrity of that structure, thereby maintaining the life of the organism.

An organism has been described, correctly, as being not an aggregate, but an integrate. When an organism ceases to perform the actions necessary to maintain its structural integrity, it dies. Death is disintegration. When the life of the organism ends, what remains is merely a collection of decomposing chemical compounds.... Man is an integrated organism, and it is not surprising that the frustration of physical needs sometimes produces psychological symptoms--and that the frustration of psychological needs sometimes produces physical symptoms. As an example of the first: the hallucinations and loss of memory that can result from a deficiency of thiamin. As an example of the second: any psychosomatic illness--migraine headaches, peptic ulcers, etc.


- Bill

Post 33

Monday, January 23, 2006 - 11:20amSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
Ellen,

=================
Am I correct in concluding that you haven't heard anything to the effect that he's begun explicitly using the label "property dualist"?
=================

You are correct.

Ed


Post 34

Monday, January 23, 2006 - 11:28amSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
Regarding Ghosts in Machines, Ryle scared Descartes' ghost away, but went too far in identifying mind with the brain -- making mind a meaningless, superfluous term. This is the same thing as, when trying to refer to the marble of a statue; merely calling (the marble) it, "statue" -- though marble is merely that formed matter of that statue. Marble is not always "statue."

Ed


Post 35

Monday, January 23, 2006 - 3:12pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
Bill:
The parts of a collective can interact without being integrated in the sense that the parts of a living organism are.
But now you're saying something different, at least if my interpretation is correct that you mean here that some collectives are not integrated in the sense that they form a total with special characteristics like those of a living being, while other collectives do have such an "integration". I can agree with this, although I still find the formulation somewhat confusing. But your original statement was: "a person is not the totality of his parts in interaction; he's an integration of the parts" [emphasis added], and here I disagree. It means that the totality of the parts of a living being (in this case a person) is not a person until some operation "integration" is performed. Now a living being is not just some random collection of interacting parts, it is a very special collection of interacting parts, and it is special in the sense that it has special attributes like the possibility of the pursuit of a single end, that are only found in a Vanishingly (to use Dennett's term) small subset of all such possible collections. But it's still just the sum of those parts, there no extra "integration" operation needed.

To use Ed's metaphor: the marble statue is a piece of marble, albeit with a very special form, but it is not some kind of "integrated" marble. Such special attributes, like the goal-directedness of living beings or the artistic and esthetic value of statues are not the result of some operation "integration" of the interacting parts, they're attributes of some very special collections of organic molecules, marble, etc. Perhaps this is semantic quibbling, but I think such formulations may cause confusion, as they suggest a dualistic model.

Post 36

Monday, January 23, 2006 - 3:46pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit

Geez, the amazing (and to me utterly surprising) new twist of language
which has been added by Bill while I was out shoveling snow. Before I
went to shovel, I read Bill's post 30, in which he describes himself as
"absolutely baffled" by my finding his use of language inconsistent.
And I read Cal's post 31, in which Cal says he doesn't "see any
difference between a person as 'the totality of his parts in interaction'
and a person as 'an integration of the parts.'"

I had a reply formulated in my thoughts at that time, and I'll proceed
to say what I'd intended to say, which was...

Cal, I do see a difference between "the totality of his parts in
interaction" and "an integration of the parts" -- in the context of
this discussion -- and apparently Bill also saw a difference, else why
would he have changed the wording? The difference I see is that the
second phrasing flirts with at minimum agent causation and thus almost
inevitably flirts with dualism-speak. I add the adverb "almost" before
"inevitably" so as to leave room for its being possible that a theorist
might espouse agent causation without having at least lurking dualist
premises. But thus far I don't think I've encountered a theorist who
argues for agent causation who doesn't have -- at least lurking --
dualist premises.

Bill claims that he isn't a dualist; he seems to want to maintain a
strict physicalist theory. As he himself stated in his post 30, the
thesis he believes he's making "absolutely clear" is that: "The mind
*is* the brain identified introspectively." Or, as he stated this
with more precision in post 7: "The mind is (a certain part of)
the brain identified introspectively."

What I'm saying in reply to Bill is that, no, this thesis is not
coming through clearly to me. And I think that the reason this
thesis isn't coming through clearly to me is because Bill doesn't
consistently hold this thesis.

Recall, from earlier posts in the discussion..

In post 6, Dean wrote:

"Vision is a process, it is what light, eyes, cones, rods, and
neurons can do. Thinking is a process, it is what neurons can do."

Bill replied, in post 7:

"I have no problem with this, as long as we recognize that by 'do'
in this context, we mean that thinking is a function performed by these
neurons, which a person engages in, just as seeing is a function of the
eyes that he performs, or digestion a function of the stomach that he
undergoes. It is a person who thinks, sees, digests food, etc., not
just his bodily parts. I'm not suggesting that you are denying this,
but only stressing it, so there's no misunderstanding."

I then wrote, in post 12:

"I see either (a) no meaning added by 'the person' in this description;
or (b) an inconsistency introduced. This is the same issue I raised
on the 'Perception of Reality' thread. And Bill gives what seems to me
the same answer -- only he gave it more briefly here.

"Bill, if all you mean by 'person' (or 'I') is the total entity, what
have you added by referring to the 'person' as the locus of the
'doing'? What you appear to me to mean is that there's something over
and above the neuronal functioning, some kind of additional entity which
'thinks, sees, digests food, etc,' some kind of entity which 'has'
the bodily parts instead of being merely the totality of those parts
in interaction."

I still say that, were Bill being consistent with his own claim that
"[t]he mind is (a certain part of) the brain identified introspectively,"
he'd see no need for adding the caveat he added in post 7, and he
wouldn't use language such as "a person engages in, [...] performs
[and] undergoes."

So I'll ask the question this way, Bill: Why did you feel it necessary,
in your reply to Dean, to write: *as long as we recognize that*
by 'do' in this context, we mean that thinking is a function
performed by these neurons, which *a person engages in*, just as seeing
is a function of the eyes that *he performs*, or digestion a function
of the stomach that *he undergoes*" [my emphasis]? What do you believe
has been added by your caveat phrase? What meaning do you see as
requiring the addition?

I think that, were you being consistent, you'd see no need of the
addition and that, instead, you'd express what you mean by
"a person" in a parallel statement to your declared view of "mind."

Repeating your claim about "mind": "The mind is (a certain part
of) the brain identified introspectively."

I'd see as a consistent parallel: A person is the totality of a
human organism as experienced.

But I anticipate that you won't like this way of defining "person,"
given your comments earlier responding to Cal re Dennett on the
"Perception of Reality" thread (your post 55 on that thread).

Possibly it will help you to understand why I'm questioning your
language -- why your language seems to me to be implying some *entity*
over and above the brain-functioning which you say *is* "mind" --
if I refer to a book title. The book title is *The Self and Its Brain*
(by Popper and Eccles, 1977). What you sound to me as if you're
talking about is summarized by that title: here's the brain, and
then here's the "self" which "does" by means of, which "uses" the
brain, which "has" the brain. Of course the usage "I have a brain"
is quite common. But it's also inappropriate usage if one is
attempting to propose a consistently physicalist non-dualist
theory of the nature of consciousness.

A passage from Dennett might help on this issue. He writes,
on pg. 28-29 of *Consciousness Explained*:

--
[Excerpt]

"Mind stuff [...] apparently has some remarkable properties. One
of these we have already noticed in passing, but it is extremely
resistant to definition. As a first pass, let us say that mind stuff
always *has a witness*. The trouble with brain events, we noticed,
is that no matter how closely they 'match' the events in our streams
of consciousness, they have one apparently fatal drawback: *There's
nobody in there watching them*. Events that happen in your brain,
just like events that happen in your stomach or your liver, are not
normally witnessed by anyone, nor does it make any difference to
how they happen whether they occur witnessed or unwitnessed. Events
in consciousness, on the other hand, are 'by definition' witnessed;
they are *experienced* by an *experiencer*, and their being thus
experienced is what makes them what they are: *conscious* events.
An experienced event cannot just happen on its own hook, it seems;
it must be *somebody's* experience. For a thought to happen,
someone (some mind) must think it, and for a pain to happen,
someone must feel it, and for a purple cow to burst into existence
'in imagination,' someone must imagine it.

"And the trouble with brains, it seems, is that when you look in them,
you discover that *there's nobody home*. No part of the brain is the
thinker that does the thinking or the feeler that does the feeling,
and the whole brain appears to be no better a candidate for that very
special role. This is a slippery topic. Do brains think? Do eyes see?
Or do people see with their eyes and think with their brains?
Is there a difference? Is this just a trivial point of 'grammar' or
does it reveal a major source of confusion? The idea that a *self*
(or a person, or, for that matter, a soul) is distinct from a brain
or a body is deeply rooted in our ways of speaking, and hence
in our ways of thinking.

"I have a brain.

"This seems to be a perfectly uncontroversial thing to say. And
it does not seem to mean just

"This body has a brain (and a heart, and two lungs, etc.).

"or

"This brain has itself.

"It is quite natural to think of 'the self and its brain' (Popper
and Eccles, 1977) as two distinct things, with different properties,
no matter how closely they depend on each other."

[End Excerpt]

--

However, IF one is trying to propose a theory which holds that "mind
*is* (a certain part of the brain) as experienced introspectively,"
then to be consistent, one needs to make a strenuous effort to break
the "self and its brain" way of thinking and to avoid the language
which goes with it.

So... that's what I was planning to say before I went out to shovel
snow. And it's what I've said. But meanwhile...

Help!! HELLO?? How did politics suddenly get into this? Bill, I
thought we were talking about materialism and the mind/body issue,
not about collectivism versus individualism. You write in response
to Cal: "[The difference between 'totality' and 'integrate' is]
the difference between an organization and an organism, or between
a collective and an individual. Collectivists typically make no such
distinction. They treat the collective as if it were an individual."

If all you're trying to get at is the difference between an
"aggregate" and an organism, then I can understand your objecting to
the word "totality," although the way in which you objected to it
sounds like at least borderline dualism-speak. But I see no relevance
whatsoever here in the context of this discussion to any mention of
"collectivists"; nor do I see any relevance to the issue of
"collectivism" versus "individualism" in the passage you quoted
from Branden. However, what I see in the second part of that
passage is exactly a reference (which you're apparently quoting
approvingly) to what you're claiming you're arguing *against*,
that is, mind-body interaction.

???

Ellen


___

Post 37

Monday, January 23, 2006 - 4:04pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
Still behind the progression...

It needed some time to write my post 36. I see that meanwhile Cal has posted, and that I wasn't quite understanding what Cal meant in post 31. (What I thought you were saying, Cal, is that you didn't see any difference between "totality" and "integration." As explained, I do see a difference in the context of this discussion. Your post 36 indicates that we're "on the same wavelength" after all about this one: you too are looking suspiciously as "suggest[ing] a dualistic model" on "integration" as Bill seems to be using it.)

Ellen

PS: Folks, just to keep things straight here, maybe I'd best indicate that I am actually inclined toward a dualist, though not Descartian dualist, theory. My objections to Bill's formulations aren't "in principle" objections to dualism of any form; they're objections to inconsistency. If Bill wants to eschew dualism, no, he isn't, IMO and apparently in Cal's also, being "absolutely clear" in doing so.

___
(Edited by Ellen Stuttle
on 1/23, 4:14pm)


Post 38

Monday, January 23, 2006 - 8:06pmSanction this postReply
Bookmark
Link
Edit
Ellen & Cal, it would help to keep definitions clear here. There are 3 main kinds of Dualists ...

  • 2.1 Predicate Dualism (I call this Concept Dualism, and Bill seems to exemplify this kind)
  • 2.2 Property Dualism
  • 2.3 Substance Dualism
    Source:
    http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/dualism/

    Knowing these 3 kinds of dualisms is a prerequisite to characterizing other folks' positions on the matter. I recently overstepped the boundaries and spouted off at the mouth on this exact same issue (I lumped Binswanger AND Searle under property dualism). Don't make the same mistake as me (as you criticize what you take Bill's position to be). Instead, learn the 3 dualisms so that you REALLY know what you are talking about when criticizing others.

    I didn't do this -- and I was wrong in that.

    Ed


  • Sanction: 3, No Sanction: 0
Sanction: 3, No Sanction: 0
    Post 39

    Monday, January 23, 2006 - 11:34pmSanction this postReply
    Bookmark
    Link
    Edit
    Regarding Searle's position, here he is, answering a panel of Stanford philosophers ...

    ====================
    Edward Zalta:
    In your recent work on the nature of consciousness, you seem to commit yourself to the following three propositions:

    (1) Consciousness is a biological, and hence scientifically reducible, phenomena.
    (2) The subjective aspect of mental states is not a scientifically reducible phenomena.
    (3) Consciousness just is the subjective aspect of mental states.

    These propositions, however, constitute an obvious contradiction. Can you please explain why you haven’t contradicted yourself?

    Searle:
    The apparent contradiction that Zalta points out is resolved by pointing out an ambiguity in the notion of scientific reduction. I distinguish between eliminative and non-eliminative reductions, and within the category of non-eliminative reductions, I distinguish between causal reductions and ontological reductions. Now, the situation with consciousness is just this: We can give a complete causal account, in principle at least, of how brain processes cause conscious states. But having done so, we have not given an ontological reduction, we have not shown that consciousness is nothing but neuronal processes in the brain. Nor can we do an eliminative reduction. The causal analysis does not show that consciousness does not really exist. So, consciousness, as Zalta is correct in seeing, is different from other biological and physical properties. It is typical of scientific reductions that we can give an ontological reduction following the causal reduction. Think of heat or solidity, for example. The reason that we cannot given an ontological reduction of consciousness can be stated quite simply: Consciousness has a first-person or subjective ontology. It exists only as experienced by a conscious agent. Because consciousness has a first-person ontology, it cannot be reduced to anything that has a third-person ontology.

    … We are not used to thinking of anything that has a first-person ontology as being an ordinary, natural phenomenon, but that is exactly what consciousness is.


    Julius Moravcsik:
    (2) The dualism of mind and matter has a sharp delineation only in Cartesian and post-Cartesian philosophy. In that sense of “matter” (extended bits of stuff), however, not even physics is materialistic. So why do these philosophers try with great effort to climb aboard the sinking ship of materialist reductionalism or physicalism?

    Searle:
    … the simplest way to give a naturalistic theory of, for example, intentionality, is to recognize that intentionality is a biological part of nature. It already is naturalized. … The same considerations apply to physicalism. If you believe that mental states are not part of the ordinary material world, then you have a problem. It’s the problem of dualism. So, the temptation of philosophers is to reduce consciousness and other mental phenomena to physical phenomena. All of these efforts fail for reasons that I have tried to explain in enormous detail.
    ====================

    Source:
    http://www.stanford.edu/group/dualist/vol4/pdfs/searle.pdf

    I find Searle to be quite coherent here (how about the rest of you?),

    Ed


    Post to this threadBack one pagePage 0Page 1Page 2Page 3Page 4Page 5Forward one pageLast Page


    User ID Password or create a free account.