| | Christopher,
I wrote: "These two standards are not in objective conflict because it is in our rational interest to adopt happiness as our individual purpose (rational egoism), and it is in our rational interest to ensure our personal values all fall within the standard of what is proper for man qua man - the universal, which is our guideline to work within to achieving happiness."
And you replied by asking, "If the reason why we should grant precedence to the 'universal standard' (over the personal one) is that it is best for our own, individual lives, then I cannot see why there cannot be at least some cases in which it would be proper to sacrifice someone to oneself. If, say, the price of giving precedence in an individual case(s) were one's very life, but one could escape the dangerous conditions one was in by choosing to value according to an individual standard, then what would the benefit for oneself of not breaking with the universal standard in such a case."
Let me make up an example. Assume some person sees a way to sacrifice another to himself in some very minor way, and it is a person he doesn't like at all, and he sees a clear gain for himself - nothing major, maybe more money in the bank. So, he is asking himself, "Why wouldn't this be right?"
He is asking why not let my personal standard take precedence over the universal standard.
Here is why: Because the universal standard is the only connection to morality as such - it is what permits the personal standard to become moral. Only if the individual honors the universal morality do they retain any logical right to make any moral assertions. No one should pay attention to someone guilty of theft when they whine about their 'rights' being violated by the police who searched their apartment to find the stolen goods. Because the thief no longer had moral standing in that particular arena - he gave it up when he stole. The person in my example can't ask if his happiness takes moral precedence over anything if he first chooses to leave the realm of the universal standard. It is very much like a stolen concept fallacy - attempting to operate as if they were parsing out what is of value, or ethical, after abandoning morality as such. To be honest and 'integrated' they would need to first adopt some universal standard based upon moral subjectivism - a kind of moral anarchy.
Rational egoism establishes a base for morality that arises out of human nature - it is a proclamation for all men that such and such is true. No one can logically claim to partake of that base as a foundation in some detailed, derived individual position, while denying the base. (And, assuming the possibility of a conflict, or assuming it would be reasonable to choose in favor of the individual over the universal IS denying the base.) -------------
There is a difference between purpose and moral justification. This comes up when you ask why a person adopts rational egoism, "...if the reason for granting precedence to the 'universal standard' is that it advances our own net gain." Look at how you are asking this. It is like you have hypothesized someone who has chosen a single primary standard of 'net [individual] gain' and is considering whether or not to abide by a universal standard. But from that position, how can they judge the moral worth of anything - they no longer have a universal standard to tell them what is an objective good - their pitiful 'moral' code is circular - self-referring - "What is good for me? Why, is is whatever is good for me?" The existence of conflicts arise only because they don't have a real moral code - one that is universal - that governs the choices they make for their individual life. -----------
Analogy: Laws have to arise out of individual rights. Imagine what you might tell someone who said, "Yeah, but what if someone sees a net gain with a law in some instance, even if it conflicts with individual rights?" If the purpose of the law is to express individual rights, and if the moral basis of the law is in its integrity to individual rights, then you can see that the question is not logical. The question tells you that the person doesn't grasp the hierarchical relationship between individual rights and laws.
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