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Post 240

Friday, January 14, 2005 - 8:34amSanction this postReply
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I'll jump in briefly here (my current absence has nothing to do with Daniel, an issue that no longer seems to exist).

As I said in a private message to Nate, there is an important sense in which concepts are truth-bearers. Let me quote the message:

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If concepts are valid, there is a sense in which they are true--this is the sense we need to invoke … . This provides the escape from circularity of definitions and the link to reality. ("Valid" is a better word, but it's crucial to see that validity ultimately depends on truth.)

[W]hen you form a concept, say "star," you are "saying" to yourself (assuming early man):

  1. The sky exists.
  2. There exist these lights in it that look approximately alike and move together.
  3. There exist similarities such that if I learn things about one, they apply to the others.
  4. (Here fill in anything you know, or learn later, about stars. They become part of the concept's truth-content.)

These are all true statements that make the concept valid. [If any of them are not true, the concept is invalid and will lead one into error. Afterthought: Point 4 is less relevant to validity, but still related to the truth-content of a concept.] A valid concept is thus a "bearer of truth" …

 
-----

(Edited by Rodney Rawlings on 1/15, 8:23am)


Post 241

Friday, January 14, 2005 - 1:05pmSanction this postReply
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Hey Rodney,

Glad to see a post from you!

Ethan


Post 242

Friday, January 14, 2005 - 1:53pmSanction this postReply
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Thanks!

Post 243

Saturday, January 15, 2005 - 11:11pmSanction this postReply
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Rick: “A concept is a grouping of certain existents according to a specific definition.”

If you mean by this grouping that we regard some existents as similar in some important ways, doesn’t this count as knowledge? If not, what is it?

Brendan


Post 244

Sunday, January 16, 2005 - 6:44amSanction this postReply
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Brendan writes:
Rick: “A concept is a grouping of certain existents according to a specific definition.”

If you mean by this grouping that we regard some existents as similar in some important ways, doesn’t this count as knowledge? If not, what is it?
Note that you wrote "we regard some existents as similar". That is correct. Similarity is epistemological. If you had written "some existents are similar" you would be claiming knowledge but you would also not be understanding Objectivism's theory of concepts.

Post 245

Sunday, January 16, 2005 - 8:08amSanction this postReply
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Rick, think again and look up "Similarity" in index to the expanded edition of IOE. Similarity is clearly metaphysical according to AR (and she's right), and you weaken your otherwise good arguments here by bolstering DB's contention that truth begins at the level of propositions. (Read with care her definition of similarity.)

Propositions stand or fall with the "truth or falsity to reality" of the integrations in the concepts used, in combination with the relations asserted, in the propositions.

(Edited by Rodney Rawlings on 1/16, 8:18am)


Post 246

Sunday, January 16, 2005 - 10:33amSanction this postReply
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Rodney writes:
Rick, think again and look up "Similarity" in index to the expanded edition of IOE. Similarity is clearly metaphysical according to AR (and she's right)...
On page 217:

Prof. B: So "similarity" is an epistemological concept, and a formulation of the metaphysical base of that would be: quantitative differences within a range.

AR: That's right.


Rand agrees that similarity is an epistemological concept.

After posting #244 I felt it was inadequate and needed further explanation.

Certainly similarity is based on the actual (metaphysical) characteristics of the units involved, but the similarity of two units depends on their difference from a third unit. Without a consciousness to relate the items there is no similarity.
...and you weaken your otherwise good arguments here by bolstering DB's contention that truth begins at the level of propositions.
I don't understand this at all. What do you mean by saying that "truth begins"?
(Read with care her definition of similarity.)
"similarity, in this context, is the relationship between two or more existents which possess the same characteristics(s), but in different measure or degree." (p.13)[emphasis added]

Relationship is epistemological. It is consciousness that relates two or more things. Otherwise there are simply two or more things.
Propositions stand or fall with the "truth or falsity to reality" of the integrations in the concepts used, in combination with the relations asserted, in the propositions.
Yes, I can accept that. However, "truth of falsity to reality" is what I would call their validity. Concepts themselves, as concepts are neither true nor false. Propositions can be true or false. Concepts are valid or invalid based on the truth or falsity of their definitions which is based on the truth or falsity of the identification of their essential characteristics.

I doubt that you can find where Rand ever refers to concepts as being either true or false.


Post 247

Sunday, January 16, 2005 - 11:32amSanction this postReply
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Rick, I agree she said that--I forgot that passage--and also that the idea of similarity involves concepts of consciousness. We agree on the root facts here. I think it is a matter of expression: when you look at it from one point of view, similarity is epistemological; from another, it is metaphysical. The main thing we Objectivists wish to say is that concepts are formed from the facts existing out there.

I would not be surprised if in another context, AR would be led to say similarity is metaphysical. (She was answering on the fly to a leading question [not in the pejorative sense]) For example, an object's position is also a relationship. Would you argue position is epistemological?

I had in mind the following facts:

  1. Similarity persists whether a characteristic is essential or nonessential in the knowledge context.
  2. If two things are similar, there is always a single metaphysical reason for it. The only question is: How important is this cause in the cognitive context? (If you are blue in the face, while the fence is painted blue, the metaphysical cause is based on the wavelengths of light.)
I doubt that you can find where Rand ever refers to concepts as being either true or false.

I agree, but she did say a concept embodies implicit propositions, and I am merely pointing out that the truth of those constitutes a concept's validity. I would never say a concept is true either--that is not my point. But for a concept, validity is based on truth or falsity.

 

So I'll say, you're right ...  but.

(Edited by Rodney Rawlings on 1/16, 1:35pm)


Post 248

Monday, January 17, 2005 - 5:57amSanction this postReply
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Overnight I've realized Rick is right--similarity is epistemological! And it doesn't affect the truth-bearing status of concepts, or the rest of what I said about that issue.

Sorry to inject confusion. More later. (Comments, I mean, not confusion [hopefully]).

(Edited by Rodney Rawlings on 1/17, 6:40am)


Post 249

Monday, January 17, 2005 - 1:15pmSanction this postReply
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Rick: “Note that you wrote "we regard some existents as similar". That is correct. Similarity is epistemological. If you had written "some existents are similar" you would be claiming knowledge but you would also not be understanding Objectivism's theory of concepts.”

I should outline my understanding of the point you are making. Let’s take by way of example Rand’s concept of “table”. Paraphrased, her definition is roughly: a man-made object, of a particular shape (flat top, supports), intended for a particular purpose.

This concept is initially formed by comparing certain objects and perceiving a general similarity -- in this case shape – by “abstracting away” particular features of the particular objects, and thus forming the basis of the concept.

The resulting concept is “epistemological” in the sense that no such general shape exists in the external world, since all objects and their characteristics are particular. But such a general shape has “mental” existence, as an entity “in the mind”.

Leaving aside the major objection – whether such a general entity can in fact be properly conceived – this process appears to be a matter of acquiring “mental content”. If this mental content does not count as knowledge, what is it?

Brendan


Post 250

Tuesday, January 18, 2005 - 7:04amSanction this postReply
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Brendan writes:
If this mental content does not count as knowledge, what is it?
The mental content consists of our knowledge of the characteristics of the units involved. Their similarity, ie, their relationship, is something that we construct based on those characteristics according to our purposes. For a trivial example from the physical world, consider two objects. One of them is above the other, or below the other, or beside the other, or near the other, or far from the other depending on our perspective.
This concept is initially formed by comparing certain objects and perceiving a general similarity -- in this case shape – by “abstracting away” particular features of the particular objects, and thus forming the basis of the concept.
This is a dangerous way of expressing what is happening. We don't "abstract away", rather we focus on. Remember that a concept includes all the characteristics of the units subsumed by the concept.

Post 251

Tuesday, January 18, 2005 - 11:16amSanction this postReply
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Although I was in error about similarity, not all relationships are epistemological, so I think Rick was wrong to emphasize the word relationship in the AR definition. For example, familial relationships and the cause-and-effect relationship: my brother is still my brother, and an entity’s actions still proceed from its nature, no matter what the cognitive context.

 

Concerning position, there are both relative or observer-based and absolute position. One might refer to the latter as location, but it is still a relationship: I was thinking of “inside” and “outside,” or the position of a pawn on the chessboard.

 

To clarify, things can be similar at one level of discernment and not at another; characteristics can be essential at one level of knowledge and not at another. But certain relationships will obtain in any context, and they are metaphysical.

 

But I don’t want to dwell on my disagreements with Rick. Both he and Nate are generally doing an excellent job of explaining IOE, in my view, and we all make mistakes.

 

Rick, you asked what I meant by “DB’s contention that truth begins at the level of propositions.” Well, I had started a private-message debate with Next Level (who got banned and we did not finish), and he defended Daniel thus:

 

Of course Daniel and I agree that it is ideal and important that we agree on the meaning of words and be consistent in our use of them. But Daniel was making the higher point that the words in themselves are not truth bearers, neither are definitions. The key is judgments or propositions or systems of them.

 

Of course, the whole point of AR’s characterization of concept formation is to reveal how concepts embody truth, and thus to head off thinkers’ violation of the nature of the process as they go higher up in the conceptual chain.

(Edited by Rodney Rawlings on 1/18, 4:55pm)


Post 252

Tuesday, January 18, 2005 - 2:17amSanction this postReply
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Hi Nate,

Sorry for the delay in replying, but the surf was particularly good this weekend...;-)

Backtracking somewhat,
>Now Daniel.  I took ten seconds to read his post, and it's clear that (Rick's) notion of a complete concept is exactly the same as my "definite", and his "incomplete" is the same as my "open-ended (in the knowledge sense)."

But Rick has changed his mind. As of post 225, he doesn't think the words "complete" or "incomplete" can apply to concepts *at all*. So it's now *not* the same notion as yours - at least as far as I can make out. Personally, I don't understand what he means here, and evidently you don't either. But that's ok. The confusion appears to be Rick's.

Nate continues:
>First, you try to peg "definite" and "open-ended" as contraries when they are not by citing two hand-picked senses of the word out of the dictionary,

They weren't "handpicked". I just took the #1 meanings for each term, although I could probably have chosen any of them to make my point. It wasn't as if I rummaged around looking for obscure meanings with which to deliberately confuse everyone. Now, you are welcome to use whichever meaning you like (see below) - my argument still applies.

Nate:
>...leading to either of the following arguments, which are both specious and are two sides of the same coin: (he puts forward two specious arguments)

But I don't believe I am making those arguments. Look, perhaps this is my fault, and I have not made myself clear enough. It has been a long debate with plenty of distractions, so let me summarise:

I understand exactly what you mean by "open ended", in that the concept "star" refers to any number of stars. But your problem is that your concepts are "open-ended" in another sense - that you can move different units (for example, the planet Venus, or angels, or balls of gas) in or out of the concept star, depending on what you learn. Yet *that's* the very sense which you're trying to tell me is "perfectly definite" - that the concept always refers to all units of that kind.

Only it can't, as you can see, those constituent units can *change* dramatically with our knowledge. One day the concept "stars" is referring to Venus as a unit, next day...it isn't! So even in the sense of "definite" you appeal to, the fifth sense (as in "concepts are known for certain") springs a leak straightaway. Otherwise you'd have to say you once "knew for certain" the Venus was a star. But then you didn't!

So you can see I am confronting your position toe-to-toe in whatever sense you choose, and am *not* equivocating as you suggest. If I have given that impression I sincerely apologise - I did not intend to, nor does my criticism rely upon it.

Now of course as I've said all along, you *can* get out of this difficulty simply by playing with words. You might say in reply "a concept refers perfectly definitely to everything which it refers to". Or alternatively, "a concept is always perfectly definite in the context of our knowledge, which is, however, indefinite", or even "when I say perfectly definite, I mean occasionally changeable given circumstances")".

You can always do that sort of manoeuvre (there are lots of variations, I won't bother to list them all). I just don't think you *should* - that it constitutes any sort of impressive argument.

And, if I pick your character correctly, neither would you.

- Daniel





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Post 253

Tuesday, January 18, 2005 - 12:30pmSanction this postReply
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Surely in the context of a philosophical discussion, when a charge of "equivocation" is made from one student of philosophy to another, it is clear what meaning is being invoked.

There is an element of second-handedness in the way the dictionary's "usual meanings" are accepted by DB as equally valid simultaneously, and in a way that ignores the fact that dictionaries merely record the way words are used, with all the sloppiness of thinking and false premises held by humanity.

This leads to such a confused mode of thinking that one can seem to equivocate even on the word "equivocation."



Post 254

Tuesday, January 18, 2005 - 1:28pmSanction this postReply
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Hi Daniel,

Nate continues:
>First, you try to peg "definite" and "open-ended" as contraries when they are not by citing two hand-picked senses of the word out of the dictionary,

They weren't "handpicked". I just took the #1 meanings for each term, although I could probably have chosen any of them to make my point. It wasn't as if I rummaged around looking for obscure meanings with which to deliberately confuse everyone. Now, you are welcome to use whichever meaning you like (see below) - my argument still applies.

Your argument does not apply if you had picked the fifth sense.  That's the one I intend, and that's the one I've been trying to convey this whole time.

I understand exactly what you mean by "open ended", in that the concept "star" refers to any number of stars. But your problem is that your concepts are "open-ended" in another sense - that you can move different units (for example, the planet Venus, or angels, or balls of gas) in or out of the concept star, depending on what you learn. Yet *that's* the very sense which you're trying to tell me is "perfectly definite" - that the concept always refers to all units of that kind.

Only it can't, as you can see, those constituent units can *change* dramatically with our knowledge. One day the concept "stars" is referring to Venus as a unit, next day...it isn't! So even in the sense of "definite" you appeal to, the fifth sense (as in "concepts are known for certain") springs a leak straightaway. Otherwise you'd have to say you once "knew for certain" the Venus was a star. But then you didn't!

Okay, this is a reasonable objection-- the resolution to this can be summarized as follows: concepts subsume referents, words don't, and two different concepts can be (sometimes unfortunately) labeled by the same word. 

Remember a while ago when I said that people didn't mean by "star" what we mean today, since they didn't have the knowledge involved to even formulate such a concept.  The olden time definition of star would be something like "an infinitesimal point of light in night sky."

Now after a while, they distinguished certain points of light which did not behave like the others, they 'wandered' through the sky; we called them "planets."  This thing that they call "The Morning Star" was one of them, since it didn't travel around like all of the other stars.  Note that at this point, since planets were considered to be something like "infinitesimal points of light in the night sky which don't move like most of the others", "planet" is a subdivision of "star", since its genus consist of stars.

Eventually, human knowledge progressed to the point where they could decide that planets were in fact other worlds revolving around the sun much like Earth, and that the vast majority of the other specks of light we observed in the sky were actually huge balls of hydrogen and helium heated to a temperature of millions of degrees Kelvin.  Note also that these objects are still directly perceivable as infinitesimal specks of light in the sky, so the old definition is contained in the new one, in a certain sense (i.e., when viewed from the older, more restrictive context).

(This, by the way, is what I think Rodney meant by the 'truth' of a concept.  Our modern concept of "star" is only made possible through a great number of propositions about the world, and the meaning of the concept stands and falls with these propositions.) 

At this point, just calling any old speck of light in the sky a 'star' didn't do justice to the knowledge they had, but they kept the name to describe the gigantic balls of gas, since the vast, vast majority of the things we called 'stars' before were this new kind of object.  Note also that stars no longer from the genus for planets-- they are distinct kinds of entities, with enough differences to justify having two separate concepts for each of them.

So when you say that "Otherwise you'd have to say you once 'knew for certain' that Venus was a star. But then you didn't!," you have to keep in mind that the word "star" in "Morning star" and the modern version of "star" refer to totally different concepts, although they are symbolized by the same word.  Therefore, if we take "Venus" as an example, it's not as though the term "star" subsumed Venus, then didn't.  It's just a matter of keeping track what concept the label "star" refers to.  We do that with definitions.

Nate



Post 255

Tuesday, January 18, 2005 - 2:26pmSanction this postReply
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Nate, you are right about what I meant by the truth in a concept, except that (as I think you understand) I mean only those truths one takes into account while forming, defining, and maintaining a concept: the reality of the existents forming the genus, the reality of the characteristics underlying the differentiation, the reality of the causal/explanatory relationships that guide one in forming the definition, and any later knowledge that makes the definition remain a good one or forces one to alter it.

 

These truths make a concept valid, but other, non-essential truths discovered at the time of formation or later are of course part of the truth-content of the concept, and must be recognized whenever the concept is used.

 

By the way, excellent exposition! I doubt Daniel will be swayed, though. I have found that people are only convinced if you speak to their deepest premises (and if those premises are honestly held of course). I do not have the time to give Daniel the attention he deserves, despite the fact that I have investigated and thought about his posts a great deal.

(Edited by Rodney Rawlings on 1/18, 3:17pm)


Post 256

Tuesday, January 18, 2005 - 2:40pmSanction this postReply
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Rick: “For a trivial example from the physical world, consider two objects. One of them is above the other, or below the other, or beside the other, or near the other, or far from the other depending on our perspective.”

I’m still not quite with you on this one, Rick. Are you saying that “above the other”, or “below the other” do not constitute knowledge – whether that knowledge is “direct” or "mediated” – about objects in the external world?

“We don't "abstract away", rather we focus on. Remember that a concept includes all the characteristics of the units subsumed by the concept.”

What is the focus on, though? When I perceive two tables, do I focus on all their characteristics -- their shapes, sizes, colours, textures, materials -- all at once? Given the amount of perceptual stimuli involved, that hardly seems possible. In order to pick out the common element, the focus must by necessity be selective.

Back to the knowledge issue, if the concept includes the characteristics of the units subsumed by the concept, presumably these characteristics are real features of objects, and thus are objects of knowledge.

Brendan


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Post 257

Wednesday, January 19, 2005 - 1:08pmSanction this postReply
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Daniel, let me put it this way:

 

If new knowledge causes us to reclassify existents, what essentially happens is that new concepts are created—since the old ones have become inadequate, false to our understanding. Some of the old words may continue to be used for some of them, for various practical reasons. But our thinking is done in the concepts, not in the words.

 

What may be confusing people is that we Objectivists have sometimes loosely called this reclassification “altering” the concept­—because the terminology of the old concept is kept and repurposed (as with “star”). However, to speak strictly, new concepts are formed and the old ones retired.

 

Now, such a reclassification of reality is not what we mean by open-endedness. Open-endedness is rather the general-reference and new-knowledge-accepting capability of a concept while referring to the same classification over time.

 

This unchanging “pointing,” aided by the definition, is what we mean by definiteness.


Post 258

Wednesday, January 19, 2005 - 9:10pmSanction this postReply
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Whew, this is certainly one mother of a thread! I still haven't read all the latest contributions, but am heartened to see Rodney Rawlings back in the fray, albeit briefly. I will try to stick to the main points only:

Rick writes (238):
>Particulars are not (cannot be made into) concepts but *concepts are particulars* (emphasis Rick)

This doesn't change the apparent problem-situation, which is still as per my (183). For the consequence of this line of argument is merely two types of "particular" instead of two types of "concept"! Let's call them for argument's sake:

Concept -Particulars, which refer to multiple things
Particular-Particulars, which refer to single things

This therefore means two types of human knowledge, one of which is *non-conceptual*. (I assume you don't think we can know about particulars via "muscle memory"...;-))See what I mean? Is that really an improvement in the situation or have the words just been played with?

I wrote:
>>Yes, definitions are of minimal importance.
Rick replied:
>Wrong! Egregiously wrong. Definitions are crucial.

To the contrary, I believe that the commonsense challenge to "define your terms!" turns out to be of minimal importance in argument, and is ultimately damaging. The key reasons for this are as follows:

1) The problem of establishing "true" essential definitions from "false" ones
2) The problem of avoiding the regress of definitions
3) The nature of language is inherited, adapted, borrowed, ambiguous, content-rich etc. This means it is always a little *vague*, though obviously some terms (eg what are usually called "defining terms") are far vaguer than others. This complicates the former two problems, both of which I consider logically intractable anyway.

- Daniel

"The chief danger to our philosophy, apart from laziness and woolliness, is scholasticism...which is treating what is vague as if it were precise..." - F.P. Ramsey



Post 259

Wednesday, January 19, 2005 - 10:11pmSanction this postReply
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Daniel,

For concreteness' sake, can you give examples of the three problems you present?

1) The problem of establishing "true" essential definitions from "false" ones
2) The problem of avoiding the regress of definitions
3) The nature of language is inherited, adapted, borrowed, ambiguous, content-rich etc. This means it is always a little *vague*, though obviously some terms (eg what are usually called "defining terms") are far vaguer than others. This complicates the former two problems, both of which I consider logically intractable anyway.

I can give you basic answers based upon what it looks like you're objecting to.

(1).  The method by which a definition is arrived at is a careful deliberation of all of the knowledge of the concept's units, which condenses all of that knowledge into a statement which most fundamentally describes the referents of the concept according to the knowledge we have, or you could say that the definition most identifies that piece of knowledge upon which all of the others depend epistemologically.

Hence, if (a) the knowledge you're using to give a definition is false, or (b) if the statement you give doesn't refer to the right referents or (c) doesn't fundamentally describe the referents (i.e., another statement could do the same in a more epistemologically economical way), then the definition itself will be false (and as Rodney and I pointed out, perhaps a better word for this would be "incorrect" or "invalid", but false will do).

(2).  This isn't really a problem.  The hierarchy of knowledge goes back quite a ways, but eventually you get back to first-level concepts-- things like "red", which can't be conveyed using other words and have to be ostensively defined.

(3).  It's true that words carry connotations that dictionaries often do not note.  But this is solved in language usage simply by noting the context.  If the context isn't clear, then one can make it explicit of any complications arise (as I tried to do with definite concepts earlier in this thread).

Nate



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